Professional in Human Resources (PHR) Certification Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which metric divides total recruiting costs by the number of hires?
- Time-to-fill
- Cost-per-hire (Correct answer)
- Quality of hire
- Yield ratio
Correct answer: Cost-per-hire
Cost-per-hire totals internal and external recruiting expenses divided by the number of positions filled.
Question 2: The HR department wants to demonstrate its strategic value to the executive team. Which of the following metrics would be most effective in linking HR activities to the organization's bottom-line business goals?
- Employee satisfaction scores from the annual survey.
- Revenue per employee. (Correct answer)
- Time-to-fill for open positions.
- Number of training hours completed per employee.
Correct answer: Revenue per employee.
Revenue per employee is a key business metric that directly links the workforce's productivity to the organization's financial performance. Presenting this metric allows HR to demonstrate how its initiatives in talent management, engagement, and performance contribute to the company's overall profitability. While training hours, satisfaction scores, and time-to-fill are valuable HR metrics, revenue per employee provides a more direct connection to core business outcomes that are a priority for the C-suite.
Question 3: Stakeholders in a business context include:
- Only customers
- Only the CEO
- Anyone affected by or interested in the organization (Correct answer)
- Only shareholders
Correct answer: Anyone affected by or interested in the organization
Stakeholders are any parties affected by or having interest in the organization, including employees, customers, and communities.
Question 4: Short term objectives are milestones that must be achieved within _______________ .
- 1 month
- 1 to 3 months
- 6 months to 1 year (Correct answer)
- 1 to 2 years
Correct answer: 6 months to 1 year
Short-term objectives are specific, measurable goals that an organization aims to achieve within a relatively brief timeframe. Typically, these objectives are set to be accomplished within 6 months to 1 year. They serve as immediate targets that contribute to the progress towards broader, long-term strategic goals.
Question 5: A realistic job preview is most likely to:
- Lower recruiting advertising costs
- Increase the applicant pool size
- Speed up time-to-fill
- Reduce early turnover by setting accurate expectations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reduce early turnover by setting accurate expectations
Realistic job previews give candidates accurate information, improving fit and reducing turnover among new hires.
Question 6: Human capital is the combined _______________, _______________, and _______________ of a company's employees.
- Education, Experience, Salary
- Knowledge, Skills, Experience (Correct answer)
- Knowledge, Education, Experience
- Knowledge, Experience, Salary
Correct answer: Knowledge, Skills, Experience
Human capital refers to the economic value of an employee's combined knowledge, skills, and experience. These attributes are crucial assets that contribute to an organization's productivity, innovation, and overall success. Investing in the development of these areas through training and development programs is key to enhancing an organization's human capital.
Question 7: What does 'role-based access control' (RBAC) accomplish in an HRIS?
- Encrypts only payroll fields
- Removes the need for passwords
- Gives all users full access
- Grants data access based on a user's job role (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Grants data access based on a user's job role
RBAC limits data visibility to what each role legitimately needs, improving security.
Question 8: Which compensation philosophy aims to set pay at the market median?
- Match (meet) the market (Correct answer)
- Lead the market
- Pay for time
- Lag the market
Correct answer: Match (meet) the market
A match strategy targets the 50th percentile to stay competitive without overpaying.
Question 9: Which type of mentoring uses a younger or less-tenured employee to teach a senior one (often about technology)?
- Reverse mentoring (Correct answer)
- Group mentoring
- Peer mentoring
- Flash mentoring
Correct answer: Reverse mentoring
Reverse mentoring flips the traditional roles, with juniors mentoring seniors, often on new skills or tech.
Question 10: An organizations four stages are:
- Formation, Growth, Maturity, Stagnation
- Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline (Correct answer)
- Startup, Investment, Growth, Sale
- Launch, Investment, Growth, Decline
Correct answer: Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline
An organizations four stages are Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline (IGMD).
Question 11: The primary goal of an effective onboarding program is to:
- Eliminate the probationary period
- Replace the orientation checklist
- Reduce the recruiting budget
- Accelerate new-hire productivity and engagement (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Accelerate new-hire productivity and engagement
Strong onboarding integrates new hires faster, boosting their productivity, engagement, and retention.
Question 12: Posting the OSHA 300A summary of injuries and illnesses is required during which months?
- December 1 through January 31
- January 1 through March 31
- February 1 through April 30 (Correct answer)
- June 1 through August 31
Correct answer: February 1 through April 30
The OSHA 300A annual summary must be posted from February 1 through April 30 each year.
Question 13: What is a 'dashboard' in HR reporting?
- A visual display of key metrics for quick interpretation (Correct answer)
- A confidential personnel file
- A single spreadsheet cell
- A printed annual report
Correct answer: A visual display of key metrics for quick interpretation
Dashboards present key HR metrics visually for at-a-glance monitoring.
Question 14: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of the state-mandated workers' compensation system in the United States?
- Only full-time employees are eligible for coverage.
- Benefits are paid directly from a federal fund administered by OSHA.
- It operates as an exclusive remedy, meaning employees generally give up the right to sue the employer for the injury. (Correct answer)
- Employees must prove employer negligence to receive any benefits.
Correct answer: It operates as an exclusive remedy, meaning employees generally give up the right to sue the employer for the injury.
Workers' compensation is a 'no-fault' system where, in exchange for receiving benefits for work-related injuries, employees typically forfeit their right to sue their employer for negligence. This concept is known as the 'exclusive remedy' rule. The system is administered at the state level, not by federal OSHA, and coverage rules vary by state but often include part-time and other types of employees.
Question 15: A mid-sized technology company is experiencing rapid growth. The executive team wants to ensure that its HR practices are aligned with the company's strategic goal of becoming an industry leader. Which of the following HR initiatives would be MOST strategic?
- Developing a comprehensive talent management program that includes succession planning for key leadership roles. (Correct answer)
- Updating the employee handbook with the latest policy changes.
- Processing payroll and benefits administration more efficiently.
- Organizing the annual company picnic to boost employee morale.
Correct answer: Developing a comprehensive talent management program that includes succession planning for key leadership roles.
A strategic HR initiative directly supports the long-term goals of the business. Developing a talent management and succession plan is crucial for a growing company aiming for industry leadership, as it ensures a pipeline of skilled leaders to sustain growth and innovation. The other options are operational or administrative HR functions, which are important but less strategic in nature.
Question 16: What is the primary aim of a safety committee in an organization?
- To set executive compensation
- To promote employee involvement in identifying and addressing hazards (Correct answer)
- To negotiate union contracts
- To manage marketing campaigns
Correct answer: To promote employee involvement in identifying and addressing hazards
Safety committees engage employees in hazard identification and continuous safety improvement.
Question 17: An HR audit measures which of the following?
- HR programs & positions (Correct answer)
- Regulatory compliance
- Hiring practices
- Retention practices
Correct answer: HR programs & positions
An HR audit is a comprehensive review of an organization's human resources policies, procedures, documentation, and systems. Its primary purpose is to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of HR programs and positions, ensuring compliance with laws and regulations, identifying areas for improvement, and aligning HR practices with organizational goals. This includes assessing everything from recruitment to compensation and employee relations.
Question 18: Quality of hire is best measured by:
- The size of the signing bonus
- The speed of the interview process
- New-hire performance and retention over time (Correct answer)
- The number of applications received
Correct answer: New-hire performance and retention over time
Quality of hire evaluates how well new employees perform and stay, reflecting recruiting effectiveness.
Question 19: An employer's job posting states 'recent college graduates only.' This wording may create:
- A bona fide seniority system
- Age discrimination concerns under the ADEA (Correct answer)
- A legal essential-function requirement
- A protected affirmative action plan
Correct answer: Age discrimination concerns under the ADEA
Phrasing that screens for recent graduates can deter older applicants and raise ADEA age-discrimination liability.
Question 20: A code of conduct primarily serves to:
- Schedule employee shifts
- Calculate payroll taxes
- Track inventory levels
- Set expected standards of ethical behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Set expected standards of ethical behavior
A code of conduct establishes the ethical standards and behavior expected of employees.
Question 21: Time-to-fill measures the number of days from:
- Job requisition approval to offer acceptance (Correct answer)
- Offer letter to first paycheck
- Application receipt to rejection
- First interview to start date
Correct answer: Job requisition approval to offer acceptance
Time-to-fill tracks the elapsed days between opening a requisition and a candidate accepting the offer.
Question 22: What is the primary distinction between employee development and career development?
- Employee development is formal, while career development is informal.
- Employee development is funded by the company, whereas career development is funded by the employee.
- Employee development focuses on improving skills for the current role, while career development focuses on long-term individual aspirations. (Correct answer)
- Employee development applies only to non-exempt staff, while career development is for management.
Correct answer: Employee development focuses on improving skills for the current role, while career development focuses on long-term individual aspirations.
Employee development is primarily focused on enhancing an employee's skills and competencies to improve performance in their current job. Career development takes a broader, longer-term view, focusing on an individual's entire career path and personal professional goals, which may or may not be aligned with their current organization.
Question 23: In a defined contribution plan, the employer _______________ and the employee _______________ make an annual payment to the employee's retirement plan account.
- may, must
- must, must
- must, may (Correct answer)
- may, may
Correct answer: must, may
In a defined contribution plan, the employer "must" make an annual payment to the employee's retirement plan account, as this is the employer's contribution commitment. The employee, however, "may" also make contributions, as their participation is typically voluntary or elective. This structure defines the employer's obligation while allowing employee flexibility in saving for retirement.
Question 24: A company is experiencing high turnover among new hires within the first six months. To improve retention, HR decides to implement a more robust program that includes formal orientation, introductions to key team members, and a 'buddy' system. This process is known as:
- Sourcing
- Recruitment
- Selection
- Onboarding (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Onboarding
Onboarding is the process of integrating a new employee into an organization and its culture. A well-structured onboarding program goes beyond basic orientation and aims to help new hires become productive and engaged members of the team, which is directly linked to higher retention rates.
Question 25: Which is an example of a 'leading' HR metric rather than a lagging one?
- Completed exit interviews count
- Employee engagement survey scores (Correct answer)
- Last year's turnover total
- Prior year absenteeism rate
Correct answer: Employee engagement survey scores
Leading metrics like engagement predict future outcomes, while lagging metrics report past results.
Question 26: How long must OSHA 300 logs of work-related injuries and illnesses generally be retained?
- 5 years following the year they cover (Correct answer)
- 3 years
- Permanently
- 1 year
Correct answer: 5 years following the year they cover
OSHA injury and illness records must be retained for five years following the calendar year they cover.
Question 27: A business continuity plan is primarily designed to do what?
- Set marketing budgets
- Conduct exit interviews
- Calculate payroll taxes
- Maintain or quickly resume critical operations after a disruption (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintain or quickly resume critical operations after a disruption
A business continuity plan ensures critical functions continue or resume quickly after a disruption.
Question 28: Which metric is calculated as (number of injuries × 200,000) / total hours worked?
- Absenteeism rate
- Incidence rate (Correct answer)
- Turnover rate
- Experience modification rate
Correct answer: Incidence rate
The OSHA incidence rate uses 200,000 hours (100 full-time workers per year) as its base.
Question 29: A project plan that displays tasks against a timeline using bars is called a:
- Pie chart
- Histogram
- Gantt chart (Correct answer)
- Scatter plot
Correct answer: Gantt chart
A Gantt chart visualizes project tasks and their durations along a timeline.
Question 30: Under OSHA's General Duty Clause, an employer must provide a workplace free from what?
- Wage violations
- Recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious harm (Correct answer)
- All possible risks of injury
- Employee disputes
Correct answer: Recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious harm
The General Duty Clause requires employers to keep the workplace free of recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm.
Question 31: Which acronym identifies the four phases of strategic planning?
- EFDI
- FDIE (Correct answer)
- FEDI
- FDEI
Correct answer: FDIE
The acronym FDIE represents the four sequential phases of strategic planning: Formulation, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation. This structured approach ensures that strategies are well-conceived, put into action, and continuously assessed for their effectiveness.
Question 32: Union security clauses are designed to protect:
- Union employees
- Unions (Correct answer)
- Union jobs
- Employers
Correct answer: Unions
Union security clauses are provisions in a collective bargaining agreement designed to protect the institutional authority or survival of the union. An example is a clause that makes union membership or payment of dues compulsory for all employees in a bargaining unit.
Question 33: Which interview type uses the same set of predetermined questions for every candidate?
- Unstructured interview
- Structured interview (Correct answer)
- Group interview
- Stress interview
Correct answer: Structured interview
A structured interview asks all candidates identical, job-related questions to improve consistency and validity.
Question 34: Behavioral interview questions are based on the premise that:
- Stress reveals real character
- Personality tests are unnecessary
- Past behavior predicts future performance (Correct answer)
- Hypothetical answers reveal true intent
Correct answer: Past behavior predicts future performance
Behavioral interviewing assumes how a candidate acted previously predicts how they will act in similar situations.
Question 35: Which federal law requires employers to provide continuation of group health coverage after qualifying events such as termination?
- COBRA (Correct answer)
- ERISA
- FMLA
- HIPAA
Correct answer: COBRA
COBRA allows employees and dependents to continue group health coverage temporarily after qualifying events.
Question 36: An action plan is used when achieving _______________ objectives.
- Medium-term
- Long-term
- Company-wide
- Short-term (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Short-term
An action plan is a detailed roadmap outlining the specific steps, resources, and timelines required to achieve a particular goal. It is most effectively used for short-term objectives because these goals typically require immediate, concrete steps and clear accountability to ensure timely completion. For longer-term objectives, action plans might be broken down into smaller, sequential short-term plans.
Question 37: In the hierarchy of controls, which method is considered the most effective for reducing a hazard?
- Administrative controls
- Warning signs
- Personal protective equipment
- Elimination (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Elimination
Elimination removes the hazard entirely and is the most effective control.
Question 38: Break even occurs when:
- Net revenue equals net cost
- Net profit equals total cost
- Total revenue equals total cost (Correct answer)
- Net profit equals net cost
Correct answer: Total revenue equals total cost
The break-even point is the level of sales at which total revenues equal total costs, meaning there is neither profit nor loss. At this point, the business has covered all its fixed and variable expenses. Understanding the break-even point is crucial for businesses to determine the minimum sales volume needed to avoid losses and to set pricing strategies.
Question 39: A pay structure with very few wide salary bands instead of many narrow grades is called:
- Broadbanding (Correct answer)
- Pay compression
- Market pricing
- Step structure
Correct answer: Broadbanding
Broadbanding consolidates many grades into a few wide bands to allow more flexibility.
Question 40: What is the purpose of a service-level agreement (SLA) with an HRIS vendor?
- To set employee salaries
- To design the office layout
- To define expected performance, uptime, and support standards (Correct answer)
- To write job descriptions
Correct answer: To define expected performance, uptime, and support standards
An SLA establishes measurable expectations for vendor performance and support.
Question 41: Which type of workplace violence involves a perpetrator who has no legitimate relationship to the business, such as during a robbery?
- Type I (criminal intent) (Correct answer)
- Type III (worker-on-worker)
- Type II (customer/client)
- Type IV (personal relationship)
Correct answer: Type I (criminal intent)
Type I workplace violence involves a perpetrator with criminal intent and no business relationship.
Question 42: Which OSHA program protects employees from unexpected machine energization during maintenance?
- Hearing Conservation
- Respiratory Protection
- Bloodborne Pathogens
- Lockout/Tagout (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lockout/Tagout
Lockout/Tagout procedures control hazardous energy during servicing and maintenance.
Question 43: What is a key consideration when migrating data to a new HRIS?
- Cleaning and validating data before transfer (Correct answer)
- Deleting all historical records
- Skipping user training
- Avoiding any testing
Correct answer: Cleaning and validating data before transfer
Data cleansing before migration prevents transferring errors into the new system.
Question 44: A growing company wants to establish a formal salary structure by determining the internal value of each job. The HR manager plans to use a system that assesses jobs based on specific compensable factors like skill, responsibility, and effort. Which job evaluation method is MOST appropriate?
- Job ranking
- Point-factor method (Correct answer)
- Job classification
- Market pricing
Correct answer: Point-factor method
The point-factor method is a quantitative job evaluation technique that determines a job's internal worth by assigning points to various compensable factors (e.g., skill, effort, responsibility, working conditions). This systematic approach aligns perfectly with the company's goal of assessing jobs based on specific, defined factors.
Question 45: Which type of incentive plan rewards employees for improvements in productivity or cost savings within a unit?
- Stock options
- Gainsharing (Correct answer)
- Profit sharing
- Merit pay
Correct answer: Gainsharing
Gainsharing rewards employees for measurable productivity gains or cost reductions in their work unit.
Question 46: The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA):
- Regulates companies who are headquartered outside the United States
- Prohibits bribes to foreign officials (Correct answer)
- Regulates companies who have foreign offices
- Prohibits breaking foreign laws even if those actions are legal in the United States
Correct answer: Prohibits bribes to foreign officials
The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) is a United States federal law that prohibits U.S. companies and individuals from paying bribes to foreign government officials to assist in obtaining or retaining business. It also includes accounting provisions that require companies to keep accurate books and records. The FCPA aims to prevent corruption in international business dealings and promote transparency.
Question 47: A company analyzes internal strengths and weaknesses alongside external opportunities and threats. What tool is this?
- SWOT analysis (Correct answer)
- Gap analysis
- Balanced scorecard
- PEST analysis
Correct answer: SWOT analysis
SWOT examines internal strengths/weaknesses and external opportunities/threats.
Question 48: Which factor most strongly supports successful transfer of training to the workplace?
- A longer lunch break during training
- Manager support and opportunities to apply new skills (Correct answer)
- More multiple-choice quizzes
- A larger training room
Correct answer: Manager support and opportunities to apply new skills
Supportive managers and chances to practice are among the strongest predictors of training transfer.
Question 49: Personal protective equipment is generally considered which type of control measure?
- An elimination control
- A substitution control
- An engineering control
- The last line of defense (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The last line of defense
PPE is the least effective control and is used as a last line of defense.
Question 50: What federal legislation defines sexual harassment as a form of discrimination?
- Title VII - Civil Rights Act (Correct answer)
- Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
- Fair Labor Standards Act
- American Disabilities Act
Correct answer: Title VII - Civil Rights Act
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. The Supreme Court and the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) have interpreted 'sex' discrimination to include sexual harassment, making it illegal under this act.
Question 51: A geographic pay differential is used primarily to address:
- Cost-of-labor and cost-of-living variations across locations (Correct answer)
- Individual performance gaps
- Seniority differences
- Overtime thresholds
Correct answer: Cost-of-labor and cost-of-living variations across locations
Geographic differentials adjust base pay to reflect local labor markets and living costs.
Question 52: A workers' compensation system is generally based on what principle?
- Voluntary employer participation
- No-fault coverage of work-related injuries (Correct answer)
- Proving employer negligence in court
- Coverage only for off-duty injuries
Correct answer: No-fault coverage of work-related injuries
Workers' compensation provides no-fault benefits for work-related injuries regardless of who was at fault.
Question 53: A small company is implementing its first Human Resource Information System (HRIS). Which of the following is the most critical success factor for this project?
- Migrating all historical paper records into the new digital system before launch.
- Training the entire workforce on how to use the system two months before it goes live.
- Securing consistent executive sponsorship and buy-in for the project. (Correct answer)
- Ensuring the system has the most advanced and complex features available on the market.
Correct answer: Securing consistent executive sponsorship and buy-in for the project.
Executive sponsorship is widely considered the most critical success factor for a major system implementation like an HRIS. Leadership buy-in ensures the project receives necessary resources, helps drive adoption across the organization, aligns the project with strategic goals, and provides authority to overcome resistance and obstacles.
Question 54: The EEO-1 report requires covered employers to submit data on:
- Total payroll expenditures
- Workforce composition by race, ethnicity, sex, and job category (Correct answer)
- Employee benefit elections
- Safety incident rates
Correct answer: Workforce composition by race, ethnicity, sex, and job category
The EEO-1 report collects demographic workforce data categorized by race/ethnicity, sex, and job category.
Question 55: Which federal agency is responsible for setting and enforcing workplace safety standards in the United States?
- DOL Wage and Hour Division
- NLRB
- OSHA (Correct answer)
- EEOC
Correct answer: OSHA
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sets and enforces workplace safety and health standards.
Question 56: An incentive plan that rewards employees for cost savings shared with the company is called:
- Gainsharing (Correct answer)
- Merit pay
- Stock option
- Profit sharing
Correct answer: Gainsharing
Gainsharing distributes a portion of measurable productivity or cost-saving gains back to employees.
Question 57: Which external factor analysis examines political, economic, social, and technological influences?
- SWOT analysis
- PEST analysis (Correct answer)
- ROI analysis
- Cost-benefit analysis
Correct answer: PEST analysis
PEST analysis evaluates political, economic, social, and technological external factors.
Question 58: The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA):
- Prohibits breaking foreign laws even if those actions are legal in the United States
- Regulates companies who are headquartered outside the United States
- Regulates companies who have foreign offices
- Prohibits bribes to foreign officials (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Prohibits bribes to foreign officials
The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) is a United States federal law that prohibits U.S. companies and individuals from paying bribes to foreign government officials to assist in obtaining or retaining business. It also includes accounting provisions that require companies to keep accurate books and records. The FCPA aims to prevent corruption in international business dealings and promote transparency.
Question 59: Under a drug-free workplace policy, when is reasonable suspicion testing typically justified?
- Only after a promotion
- On every employee monthly
- When observable signs suggest impairment (Correct answer)
- Never, as it is illegal
Correct answer: When observable signs suggest impairment
Reasonable suspicion testing is justified by observable signs or behaviors indicating impairment.
Question 60: A 'needs assessment' typically analyzes which three levels?
- Strategic, tactical, and financial
- Entry, mid, and senior
- Organizational, task, and person (Correct answer)
- Federal, state, and local
Correct answer: Organizational, task, and person
A training needs assessment examines organizational, task (job), and person (individual) levels.
Question 61: Which equity vehicle gives employees the right to buy company stock at a set price in the future?
- Stock options (Correct answer)
- Phantom stock
- Restricted stock units
- Employee stock purchase plan
Correct answer: Stock options
Stock options grant the right to purchase shares at a predetermined exercise price.
Question 62: A job specification differs from a job description because it focuses on:
- The salary range and benefits
- The daily task list
- The KSAs needed to perform the job (Correct answer)
- The department's reporting hierarchy
Correct answer: The KSAs needed to perform the job
A job specification lists the knowledge, skills, abilities, and qualifications a person needs to perform the job.
Question 63: What type of work schedule compresses a full week's work into fewer than five days?
- Constricted workweek
- Compressed workweek (Correct answer)
- Flexed workweek
- Alternative workweek
Correct answer: Compressed workweek
Compressed workweek is a work schedule that compresses a full week's work into fewer than five days.
Question 64: Which training evaluation level in Kirkpatrick's model measures whether learners changed their on-the-job behavior?
- Level 2: Learning
- Level 4: Results
- Level 1: Reaction
- Level 3: Behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Level 3: Behavior
Level 3 (Behavior) evaluates whether trainees apply new skills back on the job.
Question 65: As part of a marketing strategy, a restaurant launches a new happy-hour. The owner wants to know if the marketing helped sales a year later. Which form of strategic planning statistic can be used to compare sales from the prior year to the current year?
- Gross profit margin (Correct answer)
- Opportunity success rate
- Return on investment
- Innovation rate
Correct answer: Gross profit margin
Gross profit margin measures the percentage of revenue left after deducting the cost of goods sold. Comparing the gross profit margin year-over-year would directly show if the happy-hour marketing strategy led to an increase in profitable sales, thus indicating its effectiveness in improving the restaurant's financial performance.
Question 66: Which of the following is not an example of how an organization with a divisional structure might separate divisions?
- By market
- By region
- By product
- By factory (Correct answer)
Correct answer: By factory
A divisional organizational structure groups employees based on specific products, services, markets, or geographic regions. This allows for greater focus and responsiveness within each division. While divisions might operate out of factories, 'by factory' itself is not a typical strategic basis for separating divisions, as factories are usually production sites within a division rather than the defining characteristic of the division itself.
Question 67: A manager observes employees, then provides real-time feedback to improve performance. This is best called what?
- Succession planning
- Coaching (Correct answer)
- Compa-ratio review
- Job analysis
Correct answer: Coaching
Coaching involves observing performance and giving ongoing, real-time feedback to develop skills.
Question 68: Which principle ensures employees in comparable jobs within an organization are paid fairly relative to one another?
- Internal equity (Correct answer)
- Market competitiveness
- Procedural justice
- External equity
Correct answer: Internal equity
Internal equity ensures fairness in pay relationships among jobs inside the organization.
Question 69: Which level of Kirkpatrick's evaluation model measures whether learners apply new skills back on the job?
- Level 2 - Learning
- Level 4 - Results
- Level 3 - Behavior (Correct answer)
- Level 1 - Reaction
Correct answer: Level 3 - Behavior
Level 3 (Behavior) assesses the transfer of learning to actual job performance.
Question 70: The Davis-Bacon Act requires payment of prevailing wages on:
- Federal construction contracts (Correct answer)
- Agricultural work only
- Retail positions
- All private-sector jobs
Correct answer: Federal construction contracts
Davis-Bacon mandates prevailing wages on federally funded construction projects above a threshold.
Question 71: Which OSHA inspection priority is ranked highest?
- Referrals
- Employee complaints
- Imminent danger situations (Correct answer)
- Programmed inspections
Correct answer: Imminent danger situations
Imminent danger situations receive the highest OSHA inspection priority.
Question 72: A manufacturing company plans to introduce a new automated production line. This change will require employees to learn new skills and adapt to different workflows. To manage this transition effectively, the HR manager recommends using a change management model. What is the primary purpose of using a change management model in this scenario?
- To provide a structured approach to help employees transition from their current state to a future desired state. (Correct answer)
- To select the vendor for the new automation equipment.
- To document the project plan for the new production line.
- To eliminate any employee resistance to the new technology.
Correct answer: To provide a structured approach to help employees transition from their current state to a future desired state.
Change management models provide a structured process for managing the 'people side' of change. Their primary purpose is to help employees understand, accept, and embrace changes in their work environment, thereby minimizing resistance and ensuring a smoother transition to the new processes or systems.
Question 73: During a strategic review, a company's leadership team identifies that its hierarchical organizational structure is slowing down decision-making and hindering innovation. To become more agile, they decide to implement a flatter, team-based structure. HR is tasked with facilitating this change. Which of the following is the MOST critical first step for HR?
- Immediately redraft all job descriptions for every employee.
- Develop a communication and transition plan that addresses employee concerns and outlines new roles and reporting structures. (Correct answer)
- Announce the new organizational chart in a company-wide email.
- Purchase new project management software for the teams.
Correct answer: Develop a communication and transition plan that addresses employee concerns and outlines new roles and reporting structures.
Organizational restructuring is a significant change that can create uncertainty and resistance among employees. The most critical first step for HR is to develop a comprehensive communication and transition plan. This plan should explain the rationale for the change, outline the new structure, clarify new roles and responsibilities, and provide a clear timeline, thereby managing employee expectations and mitigating resistance.
Question 74: What is the main advantage of job rotation as a development method?
- It guarantees a promotion
- It reduces total headcount
- It broadens employees' skills across multiple functions (Correct answer)
- It eliminates the need for formal training
Correct answer: It broadens employees' skills across multiple functions
Job rotation exposes employees to different roles, building cross-functional skills and flexibility.
Question 75: What is the primary purpose of a salary survey in total rewards?
- To benchmark external market competitiveness (Correct answer)
- To calculate payroll taxes
- To measure employee engagement
- To track internal promotions
Correct answer: To benchmark external market competitiveness
Salary surveys help organizations benchmark their pay against the external labor market.
Question 76: What is a primary risk of poor HRIS data quality?
- Incorrect decisions based on flawed reports (Correct answer)
- Faster processing speeds
- Lower software licensing costs
- Increased employee morale
Correct answer: Incorrect decisions based on flawed reports
Bad data leads to inaccurate analytics and poor HR decision-making.
Question 77: An employer brand most directly influences:
- Shareholder dividend payments
- The corporate tax rate
- A company's ability to attract and retain talent (Correct answer)
- Product pricing strategy
Correct answer: A company's ability to attract and retain talent
Employer branding shapes an organization's reputation as a place to work, affecting attraction and retention.
Question 78: The range spread of a pay grade is calculated as:
- Minimum divided by midpoint
- (Maximum minus minimum) divided by minimum (Correct answer)
- Maximum minus midpoint
- Midpoint divided by maximum
Correct answer: (Maximum minus minimum) divided by minimum
Range spread = (max − min) / min, expressing the width of the pay range as a percentage.
Question 79: Which of the following represents a best practice when conducting a performance appraisal interview?
- The discussion should focus primarily on the employee's personality traits
- The interview should be kept under five minutes to reduce employee anxiety
- The manager should do most of the talking to ensure all points are covered
- The manager should encourage employee self-assessment and two-way dialogue (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The manager should encourage employee self-assessment and two-way dialogue
Best practice performance appraisal interviews are participative, encouraging employees to self-assess and engage in dialogue, which increases buy-in and fairness perceptions.
Question 80: Why is it important to align L&D programs with organizational strategy?
- To shorten the workweek
- To reduce the number of employees
- To avoid paying any trainers
- To ensure training builds capabilities that advance business goals (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure training builds capabilities that advance business goals
Strategically aligned L&D develops the capabilities the organization needs to achieve its objectives.
Question 81: Which document outlines the essential duties, responsibilities, and reporting relationships of a position?
- Offer letter
- Org chart
- Job specification
- Job description (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Job description
A job description details the duties, responsibilities, and reporting structure of a role.
Question 82: A company recently launched an Employee Self-Service (ESS) portal. What is the primary strategic benefit of this initiative for the HR department?
- It generates more complex compliance reporting requirements for the HR team.
- It completely eliminates the need for employees to communicate directly with the HR department.
- It allows HR professionals to focus more on strategic initiatives by reducing time spent on administrative tasks. (Correct answer)
- It increases the HR department's control over employee data entry and accuracy.
Correct answer: It allows HR professionals to focus more on strategic initiatives by reducing time spent on administrative tasks.
The main strategic advantage of an ESS portal is that it empowers employees to manage their own routine transactional tasks (e.g., updating addresses, viewing pay stubs, enrolling in benefits). This significantly reduces the administrative burden on the HR department, freeing up their time to focus on higher-value, strategic activities like talent management, organizational development, and strategic planning.
Question 83: Which of the following questions should be answered before choosing an HRIS system?
- Who will have access to the information?
- How will the HRIS be used?
- What information will be utilized by the HRIS?
- All of the above (Correct answer)
Correct answer: All of the above
Before selecting an HRIS, it's crucial to understand the system's purpose, how it will be used, and who will access the data. Answering 'What information will be utilized?', 'How will the HRIS be used?', and 'Who will have access?' ensures the chosen system meets organizational needs, integrates effectively, and complies with data security and privacy requirements.
Question 84: Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of strategic workforce planning?
- To ensure the organization has the right people with the right skills to achieve future business goals. (Correct answer)
- To fill current vacant positions as quickly as possible.
- To reduce the overall cost-per-hire for all departments.
- To administer employee benefits and compensation packages.
Correct answer: To ensure the organization has the right people with the right skills to achieve future business goals.
The primary goal of strategic workforce planning is to analyze the current workforce, forecast future workforce needs, and identify and close gaps to ensure that the organization has the right talent to meet its strategic business objectives. It's a forward-looking process that aligns HR strategy with the overall business strategy.
Question 85: Which of the following distinguishes succession planning from general career development?
- Career development is organization-driven, while succession planning is employee-driven.
- Career development primarily uses off-the-job training methods, while succession planning uses on-the-job methods.
- Succession planning is a short-term activity, whereas career development is a long-term process.
- Succession planning focuses on preparing high-potential employees for key leadership roles, while career development is broader. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Succession planning focuses on preparing high-potential employees for key leadership roles, while career development is broader.
Succession planning is a targeted, organization-driven process focused on identifying and developing internal talent to fill critical leadership positions, ensuring business continuity. Career development is a broader, often employee-driven process that helps individuals manage their career paths within the organization.
Question 86: An effective workplace emergency action plan should primarily include what?
- Evacuation procedures and routes (Correct answer)
- Annual salary reviews
- Performance appraisal forms
- Recruiting metrics
Correct answer: Evacuation procedures and routes
An emergency action plan must include evacuation procedures, routes, and exits.
Question 87: Under the FLSA, the federal minimum wage tip credit allows employers to pay tipped employees a lower cash wage as long as tips bring them to at least:
- The state median wage
- The full minimum wage (Correct answer)
- Half the minimum wage
- The poverty line
Correct answer: The full minimum wage
The tip credit is valid only if cash wages plus tips equal at least the full minimum wage.
Question 88: Restricted stock units (RSUs) generally become the employee's property upon:
- Grant date
- Plan adoption
- Hire date
- Vesting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Vesting
RSUs convey value only after they vest according to the plan's schedule or performance conditions.
Question 89: An HR manager is drafting a new policy regarding employee use of company computers and email. To minimize legal risk related to privacy, which element is MOST essential to include in the policy?
- A list of all websites that are blocked by the company's firewall.
- A clear statement that employees have no reasonable expectation of privacy when using company systems. (Correct answer)
- A clause stating that all employee data entered into company systems is considered confidential.
- A guarantee that personal emails will not be read by management.
Correct answer: A clear statement that employees have no reasonable expectation of privacy when using company systems.
The most critical legal protection for an employer monitoring electronic communications is to eliminate any expectation of privacy. By clearly stating in a policy that company systems are for business purposes and that employees should have no expectation of privacy, the company establishes its right to monitor activity to protect its assets and ensure productivity.
Question 90: A human resources employee would be classified as a:
- Line unit
- Business unit
- Management unit
- Staff unit (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Staff unit
A human resources employee primarily provides specialized support, advice, and services to other departments and line managers within an organization. This advisory and indirect role, rather than direct production of goods or services, is the defining characteristic of a staff unit.
Question 91: Why should HR limit access to compensation data within the HRIS?
- To protect confidentiality and comply with privacy expectations (Correct answer)
- To increase data entry errors
- To make reports harder to read
- To slow down payroll
Correct answer: To protect confidentiality and comply with privacy expectations
Restricting access to pay data preserves confidentiality and prevents misuse.
Question 92: Adverse impact in selection is commonly evaluated using which guideline?
- The four-fifths (80%) rule (Correct answer)
- The ministerial exception
- The bona fide occupational qualification
- The de minimis standard
Correct answer: The four-fifths (80%) rule
The four-fifths rule flags potential adverse impact when a protected group's selection rate is below 80% of the highest group's rate.
Question 93: An HR manager at a call center learns that employees are experiencing severe ergonomic strain from prolonged sitting in poorly designed chairs, a hazard for which no specific OSHA standard exists. However, the risk is well-recognized within the industry. If an employee is seriously injured as a result, under which provision could OSHA cite the employer?
- The Whistleblower Protection Program
- The Hazard Communication Standard
- The General Duty Clause (Correct answer)
- The Emergency Action Plan rule
Correct answer: The General Duty Clause
The General Duty Clause, Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act, requires employers to provide a workplace "free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm." It is used for enforcement when no specific OSHA standard applies to the recognized hazard, such as ergonomics in this scenario.
Question 94: Which planning framework translates strategy into measures across financial, customer, internal, and learning perspectives?
- Gantt chart
- Fishbone diagram
- Balanced scorecard (Correct answer)
- SWOT analysis
Correct answer: Balanced scorecard
The balanced scorecard tracks performance across four linked perspectives tied to strategy.
Question 95: Which of the following is a term for when there is only a small difference in pay between employees regardless of their skills, experience or seniority?
- Pay regression
- Pay differentiation
- Pay stagnation
- Pay compression (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pay compression
Pay compression occurs when there is only a small difference in pay between employees regardless of their skills, experience, or seniority, or between new hires and more experienced employees. This often happens when market rates for new hires increase rapidly, or when minimum wage increases narrow the gap between entry-level and long-term employees. It can lead to dissatisfaction among experienced staff who feel their contributions are not adequately recognized.
Question 96: The point-factor method of job evaluation works by:
- Matching jobs to market survey data
- Assigning points to compensable factors and summing them (Correct answer)
- Comparing whole jobs to one another
- Ranking jobs from highest to lowest
Correct answer: Assigning points to compensable factors and summing them
Point-factor evaluation scores jobs on compensable factors like skill, effort, and responsibility.
Question 97: An HR department has discovered that a manager has been accessing the personal files of their subordinates in the HRIS without any legitimate business reason. This action is a direct violation of which fundamental principle of information management?
- Data integrity
- Access control (Correct answer)
- Data encryption
- System integration
Correct answer: Access control
Access control is the security principle that restricts access to information and system functions to authorized users. The manager's actions represent a failure or breach of access control, as they accessed confidential data that was not necessary for their role. Data integrity relates to accuracy, integration to system connectivity, and encryption to data protection during storage or transmission.
Question 98: Under the ACA, applicable large employers must offer affordable coverage to full-time employees working at least how many hours per week on average?
- 30 (Correct answer)
- 40
- 20
- 35
Correct answer: 30
The ACA defines a full-time employee as one averaging at least 30 hours per week.
Question 99: A 'competency model' is primarily used in L&D to do what?
- Define the knowledge, skills, and behaviors needed for success in a role (Correct answer)
- Set the company's pay grades
- Track paid time off
- Schedule shift rotations
Correct answer: Define the knowledge, skills, and behaviors needed for success in a role
A competency model specifies the capabilities required for effective performance, guiding development efforts.
Question 100: The difference between an employee's pay and the midpoint of their pay range, expressed as a ratio, is called the:
- Range spread
- Compa-ratio (Correct answer)
- Wage index
- Pay differential
Correct answer: Compa-ratio
A compa-ratio of 1.0 means the employee is paid exactly at the range midpoint.
Professional in Human Resources (PHR) Certification Exam
The PHR certification validates foundational knowledge and practical application of HR principles, focusing on operational and technical aspects of HR management.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds