TS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring (70-642) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: An organization is evaluating third-party cloud services for Windows Server 2008 backup offloading. The risk manager is concerned about risks introduced by the vendor relationship itself. What type of risk does this represent?
- Regulatory compliance risk
- Physical security risk
- Internal operational risk
- Supply chain / third-party risk (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Supply chain / third-party risk
Third-party or supply chain risk arises when external vendors introduce vulnerabilities, compliance gaps, or reliability issues into the organization's risk profile.
Question 2: Your organization uses Network Access Protection (NAP) with DHCP enforcement. A non-compliant client connects to the network. What IP configuration does the non-compliant client receive?
- An APIPA address
- A restricted IP address with access only to remediation servers (Correct answer)
- No IP address
- A full IP address with unrestricted access
Correct answer: A restricted IP address with access only to remediation servers
With DHCP-based NAP enforcement, non-compliant clients receive a restricted IP configuration that limits access only to remediation servers until they become compliant.
Question 3: What Windows Server 2008 DHCP feature allows a single DHCP server to serve multiple subnets by grouping scopes?
- Split scope
- Superscope (Correct answer)
- DHCP relay
- Multicast scope
Correct answer: Superscope
A superscope groups multiple scopes together, allowing a single DHCP server to service clients from multiple subnets on the same physical network.
Question 4: Which DNS record type maps an IPv6 address to a hostname?
- AAAA record (Correct answer)
- A record
- PTR record
- MX record
Correct answer: AAAA record
The AAAA record (quad-A) maps a hostname to a 128-bit IPv6 address, analogous to how an A record maps to IPv4.
Question 5: What command-line tool is used in Windows Server 2008 to query DNS records and troubleshoot name resolution?
- tracert
- nslookup (Correct answer)
- ipconfig
- netsh
Correct answer: nslookup
nslookup is the standard Windows command-line utility for querying DNS servers and diagnosing DNS resolution problems.
Question 6: A company implements NAP with DHCP enforcement on Windows Server 2008 R2. Non-compliant clients receive an IP address but can only reach remediation servers. How is this achieved?
- NPS instructs the DHCP server to assign limited routes and a restricted IP to non-compliant clients (Correct answer)
- Non-compliant clients receive a public IP with no default gateway
- Windows Firewall blocks all traffic except to remediation servers on non-compliant clients
- Non-compliant clients are placed in a separate VLAN automatically
Correct answer: NPS instructs the DHCP server to assign limited routes and a restricted IP to non-compliant clients
With DHCP enforcement, NPS signals the DHCP server to assign non-compliant clients a restricted address with routes only to remediation servers.
Question 7: A network administrator researching wireless client connectivity issues needs evidence of 802.1X authentication attempts. Which log source is most relevant?
- DHCP server audit log
- NPS server event log showing RADIUS authentication records (Correct answer)
- Wireless LAN adapter event log on the client
- DNS server debug log
Correct answer: NPS server event log showing RADIUS authentication records
The NPS event log records all RADIUS authentication attempts including 802.1X wireless authentication successes and failures.
Question 8: Which Windows Server 2008 role enables IP routing and VPN connectivity?
- Network Policy Server
- Web Server (IIS)
- Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS) (Correct answer)
- File Services
Correct answer: Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
RRAS (Routing and Remote Access Service) provides IP routing, NAT, and VPN gateway functionality in Windows Server 2008.
Question 9: A Windows Server 2008 R2 DHCP server is failing to lease addresses. You run 'ipconfig /all' on the server and notice it has an APIPA address. What is the most likely problem?
- The DHCP server itself is not authorized in Active Directory (Correct answer)
- The DHCP Server service is stopped
- The server cannot reach a domain controller
- The DHCP scope is exhausted
Correct answer: The DHCP server itself is not authorized in Active Directory
In an Active Directory environment, a DHCP server must be authorized in AD before it can lease addresses; an unauthorized server will not service client requests.
Question 10: What is the default TTL (Time to Live) unit for DNS records in Windows Server 2008?
- Minutes
- Hours
- Seconds (Correct answer)
- Milliseconds
Correct answer: Seconds
DNS TTL values in Windows Server 2008 are expressed in seconds, controlling how long records are cached.
Question 11: A compliance auditor requests evidence that firewall policy changes in a Windows Server 2008 environment were properly authorized. Which artifact best satisfies this requirement?
- Signed and dated change request forms with approver names and timestamps (Correct answer)
- Verbal confirmation from the administrator who made the change
- A screenshot of the firewall management console
- The administrator's email inbox showing related conversations
Correct answer: Signed and dated change request forms with approver names and timestamps
Signed change request forms with approver identities and timestamps provide the audit trail auditors require for compliance evidence.
Question 12: Which Windows Server 2008 role provides automatic IP address assignment to network clients?
- Remote Access
- DNS Server
- DHCP Server (Correct answer)
- WINS Server
Correct answer: DHCP Server
The DHCP Server role in Windows Server 2008 automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration to clients.
Question 13: What tool is used to manage DHCP server settings, scopes, and leases in Windows Server 2008?
- ipconfig /all
- DHCP console (dhcpmgmt.msc) (Correct answer)
- Network and Sharing Center
- Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct answer: DHCP console (dhcpmgmt.msc)
The DHCP console (dhcpmgmt.msc) is the MMC snap-in for configuring and managing DHCP servers, scopes, reservations, and leases.
Question 14: In a NAP with VPN enforcement scenario, which server role must be co-located with or connected to the NPS server?
- Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
- Active Directory Certificate Services
- Active Directory Domain Services
- Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
RRAS acts as the VPN server and RADIUS client, forwarding authentication and health validation requests to NPS for policy evaluation.
Question 15: What DHCP option specifies the DNS server addresses for clients?
- Option 51
- Option 3
- Option 6 (Correct answer)
- Option 15
Correct answer: Option 6
DHCP Option 6 (DNS Servers) provides clients with the IP addresses of DNS servers to use for name resolution.
Question 16: What VPN protocol in Windows Server 2008 encapsulates PPP frames within IP datagrams and uses IPsec for encryption?
- PPTP
- IKEv2
- L2TP/IPsec (Correct answer)
- SSTP
Correct answer: L2TP/IPsec
L2TP/IPsec tunnels PPP frames using L2TP and secures them with IPsec encryption, providing strong authentication and data integrity.
Question 17: What Windows Server 2008 feature integrates DHCP with DNS to automatically update DNS records when IP addresses are assigned?
- Network Access Protection
- DNS Dynamic Update via DHCP (Correct answer)
- DHCP Failover
- WINS integration
Correct answer: DNS Dynamic Update via DHCP
DHCP can be configured to perform DNS dynamic updates on behalf of clients, registering and deregistering A and PTR records automatically.
Question 18: After a Windows Server 2008 network upgrade project, the project manager asks for a lessons-learned meeting. What is the primary benefit of this stakeholder communication practice?
- To capture successes and failures so future projects and teams benefit from the experience (Correct answer)
- To satisfy an optional formality with no operational value
- To create a record of billable hours
- To assign blame for issues that occurred during the project
Correct answer: To capture successes and failures so future projects and teams benefit from the experience
Lessons-learned meetings systematically capture knowledge that improves future project planning and team communication processes.
Question 19: A security team requests a report on all open inbound firewall rules in the Windows Server 2008 perimeter. How should the network administrator present this information for maximum clarity?
- Produce a structured report listing each rule, its business justification, owner, and last review date (Correct answer)
- Provide only the total count of rules
- Export raw netsh output and send it unformatted
- Deny the request citing operational sensitivity
Correct answer: Produce a structured report listing each rule, its business justification, owner, and last review date
Structured reports with justification and ownership metadata allow security teams to assess risk and identify rules requiring review or removal.
Question 20: Which NAP component determines what remediation actions a quarantined client should take?
- NAP Administration Server
- System Health Validator (SHV) (Correct answer)
- NAP Agent on the client
- Quarantine Server
Correct answer: System Health Validator (SHV)
The SHV on the NPS server evaluates client health reports and specifies which health requirements are not met, guiding the client's remediation steps.
Question 21: How do MCTS 70-642 professionals maintain digital competency?
- Digital skills are not required
- By hiring IT support for all tasks
- Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances (Correct answer)
- Skills from initial training are sufficient
Correct answer: Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances
This is fundamental to MCTS 70-642 Exam practice. Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances represents the professional standard for technology in the MCTS 70-642 certification framework.
Question 22: SOX compliance requires that changes to financial system configurations be tracked and approved. Which Windows Server 2008 feature supports this by recording configuration changes?
- Network Monitor
- Windows Server Backup
- Audit Policy Change audit category (Correct answer)
- Remote Desktop Services
Correct answer: Audit Policy Change audit category
Enabling the Audit Policy Change category logs modifications to audit policies, user rights, and trust relationships, providing a trail of configuration changes for SOX compliance.
Question 23: In NPS, what is the difference between a Connection Request Policy and a Network Policy?
- Connection Request Policies authenticate users; Network Policies authorize them
- Connection Request Policies determine where requests are processed; Network Policies determine whether access is granted (Correct answer)
- Connection Request Policies apply to wired clients; Network Policies apply to wireless clients
- Connection Request Policies configure RADIUS accounting; Network Policies configure RADIUS authentication
Correct answer: Connection Request Policies determine where requests are processed; Network Policies determine whether access is granted
Connection Request Policies determine whether NPS processes requests locally or forwards them to a remote RADIUS server, while Network Policies specify the conditions and constraints for granting or denying access.
Question 24: What is the significance of a code of conduct for MCTS 70-642 professionals?
- It applies only to new practitioners
- It is merely symbolic
- It limits professional freedom
- It establishes expected behaviors and ethical standards that protect the public and profession (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It establishes expected behaviors and ethical standards that protect the public and profession
This is fundamental to MCTS 70-642 Exam practice. It establishes expected behaviors and ethical standards that protect the public and profession represents the professional standard for professional standards in the MCTS 70-642 certification framework.
Question 25: What is a System Health Validator (SHV) in a NAP deployment?
- A client-side component that generates health certificates
- A Group Policy object that configures NAP settings on clients
- A server-side component that evaluates the health reports submitted by clients (Correct answer)
- A network switch that enforces 802.1X policies
Correct answer: A server-side component that evaluates the health reports submitted by clients
An SHV runs on the NPS server and verifies the health state reported by the corresponding System Health Agent (SHA) on the client.
Question 26: What happens when a Windows Server 2008 DNS server receives a query for a domain it is not authoritative for and recursion is enabled?
- Queries other DNS servers on behalf of the client (Correct answer)
- Forwards to the nearest domain controller
- Returns an error immediately
- Returns the cached root hints only
Correct answer: Queries other DNS servers on behalf of the client
When recursion is enabled, the DNS server queries other servers iteratively on the client's behalf until it resolves the name or determines it doesn't exist.
Question 27: Which IPv6 address type is equivalent to the IPv4 private address ranges and is routable only within an organization?
- Global unicast (2000::/3)
- Multicast (ff00::/8)
- Unique local (fc00::/7) (Correct answer)
- Link-local (fe80::/10)
Correct answer: Unique local (fc00::/7)
Unique local addresses (fc00::/7, commonly fd00::/8) are the IPv6 equivalent of RFC 1918 private IPv4 addresses and are not routed on the global Internet.
Question 28: When investigating a suspected DNS spoofing attack, which DNS feature provides cryptographic evidence of record authenticity?
- DNSSEC with digital signatures (Correct answer)
- DNS forwarders
- DNS stub zones
- DNS scavenging
Correct answer: DNSSEC with digital signatures
DNSSEC adds digital signatures to DNS records, allowing resolvers to verify record authenticity and detect spoofed responses.
Question 29: How should an MCTS 70-642 professional handle a situation outside their scope of competency?
- Recognize limitations and refer to or consult with appropriate specialists (Correct answer)
- Ignore the situation
- Decline all unfamiliar work
- Attempt it anyway
Correct answer: Recognize limitations and refer to or consult with appropriate specialists
This is fundamental to MCTS 70-642 Exam practice. Recognize limitations and refer to or consult with appropriate specialists represents the professional standard for professional standards in the MCTS 70-642 certification framework.
Question 30: Which subnet mask corresponds to a /24 prefix length in CIDR notation?
- 255.0.0.0
- 255.255.255.0 (Correct answer)
- 255.255.255.128
- 255.255.0.0
Correct answer: 255.255.255.0
A /24 prefix means 24 bits are used for the network portion, resulting in a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 (three full octets of 1s).
Question 31: In a NAP deployment, what is the purpose of a Remediation Server?
- To log all NAP enforcement events to a central database
- To act as the RADIUS proxy for remote access requests
- To issue health certificates to compliant clients
- To provide resources that help non-compliant clients become compliant (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To provide resources that help non-compliant clients become compliant
Remediation servers host software updates, patches, and configuration tools that quarantined non-compliant clients can access to achieve compliance.
Question 32: What NPS feature allows multiple RADIUS clients (such as VPN servers and wireless APs) to send requests to a single NPS server?
- Centralized NPS with RADIUS clients configured on the NPS server (Correct answer)
- NPS proxy chaining
- RADIUS server groups
- NPS templates
Correct answer: Centralized NPS with RADIUS clients configured on the NPS server
By configuring each network access server (VPN server, WAP, switch) as a RADIUS client on the central NPS server, all authentication requests can be processed centrally.
Question 33: Which NAP component on the client computer collects and reports the client's health status to the server?
- NAP Enforcement Client (EC)
- NAP Agent (Correct answer)
- System Health Validator (SHV)
- Health Registration Authority (HRA)
Correct answer: NAP Agent
The NAP Agent service runs on the client and aggregates health data from System Health Agents (SHAs) to report health status to the NAP infrastructure.
Question 34: What DHCP feature assigns a specific IP address to a client based on its MAC address?
- Reservation (Correct answer)
- Scope option
- Exclusion range
- Superscope
Correct answer: Reservation
A DHCP reservation ties a specific IP address to a client's MAC address, ensuring that client always receives the same IP.
Question 35: During a quality review, you discover that a DNS server's cache is returning outdated records that were updated at the authoritative server. What is the fastest corrective action?
- Delete and re-create the zone
- Decrease the zone's TTL
- Run dnscmd /clearcache (Correct answer)
- Restart the DNS Server service
Correct answer: Run dnscmd /clearcache
The dnscmd /clearcache command immediately flushes all cached DNS records from the server's resolver cache without requiring a service restart.
Question 36: When NPS is configured as a RADIUS proxy, what does it do with connection requests?
- It forwards authentication requests to remote RADIUS servers based on connection request policies (Correct answer)
- It issues SSL certificates to clients before allowing access
- It authenticates users directly against Active Directory
- It terminates the VPN tunnel and inspects the traffic
Correct answer: It forwards authentication requests to remote RADIUS servers based on connection request policies
As a RADIUS proxy, NPS forwards connection requests to remote RADIUS servers (configured in remote RADIUS server groups) rather than authenticating users itself.
Question 37: A technician wants to verify that DNS name resolution is working for a specific record type. Which command-line tool provides the most granular control over query type?
- nslookup (Correct answer)
- netstat
- ping
- ipconfig /flushdns
Correct answer: nslookup
Nslookup allows you to specify query types (A, MX, SRV, PTR, etc.) and target specific DNS servers for granular resolution testing.
Question 38: An administrator configures IPsec transport mode between two servers. What portion of the packet is protected?
- Only the IP payload (transport-layer data), not the original IP header (Correct answer)
- Only the IP header, not the payload
- Neither header nor payload — only the key exchange is secured
- The entire IP packet including the original IP header
Correct answer: Only the IP payload (transport-layer data), not the original IP header
IPsec transport mode encrypts and/or authenticates the payload while keeping the original IP header intact, used for end-to-end host communication.
Question 39: Which DNS zone type stores zone data in Active Directory rather than a text file?
- Standard primary
- Active Directory-integrated (Correct answer)
- Stub zone
- Standard secondary
Correct answer: Active Directory-integrated
Active Directory-integrated zones store DNS data in the AD database, enabling secure dynamic updates and multi-master replication.
Question 40: Which NAP enforcement method uses IEEE 802.1X to restrict network access for non-compliant clients?
- 802.1X enforcement (Correct answer)
- VPN enforcement
- DHCP enforcement
- IPsec enforcement
Correct answer: 802.1X enforcement
802.1X NAP enforcement uses 802.1X-capable switches or wireless access points to restrict non-compliant clients to a restricted VLAN until they meet health requirements.
Question 41: You suspect a rogue DHCP server is operating on your network. Which command shows the IP address of the DHCP server that leased an address to a Windows client?
- route print
- arp -a
- netstat -an
- ipconfig /all (Correct answer)
Correct answer: ipconfig /all
The 'ipconfig /all' command displays the DHCP server IP address alongside the lease details for each network adapter.
Question 42: When configuring NPS for 802.1X wireless access, which setting in the Network Policy specifies the VLAN that compliant clients are placed in?
- The connection request policy routing rules
- RADIUS attributes such as Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID in the policy settings (Correct answer)
- The health policy linked to the network policy
- IP filters in the network policy constraints
Correct answer: RADIUS attributes such as Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID in the policy settings
RADIUS attributes including Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID are configured in the NPS network policy to instruct 802.1X-capable switches or APs to place compliant clients in the correct VLAN.
Question 43: During a Windows Server 2008 network project, a change to the DHCP scope causes IP conflicts. Which stakeholder communication principle should guide your response?
- Delay communication until the source of the conflict is 100% confirmed
- Communicate proactively with affected teams while investigation is ongoing, providing updates as information becomes available (Correct answer)
- Only inform the help desk and no one else
- Blame the previous administrator in the incident report
Correct answer: Communicate proactively with affected teams while investigation is ongoing, providing updates as information becomes available
Proactive, ongoing communication during incidents builds trust and allows stakeholders to take appropriate action even before root cause is identified.
Question 44: A network administrator must ensure that routing table changes on a Windows Server 2008 RRAS server are properly tracked. Which approach supports this requirement?
- Allow all team members to make changes without documentation
- Rely on memory for tracking changes
- Use configuration management tools and maintain a change log for all routing modifications (Correct answer)
- Disable RRAS logging to reduce overhead
Correct answer: Use configuration management tools and maintain a change log for all routing modifications
Configuration management and change logs provide an auditable record of routing changes, supporting troubleshooting and compliance.
Question 45: Which statement correctly describes the difference between an authoritative DNS server and a recursive resolver?
- An authoritative server holds definitive zone data; a recursive resolver queries other servers on behalf of clients (Correct answer)
- Recursive resolvers never cache responses
- An authoritative server queries other servers on behalf of clients; a recursive resolver holds zone data
- Both hold zone data but authoritative servers do not cache results
Correct answer: An authoritative server holds definitive zone data; a recursive resolver queries other servers on behalf of clients
An authoritative server is the definitive source for a zone's records, while a recursive resolver queries the DNS hierarchy on behalf of clients and caches results.
Question 46: Which protocol allows DHCP requests to be forwarded from one subnet to a DHCP server on a different subnet?
- Dynamic DNS
- BOOTP/DHCP relay agent (Correct answer)
- IGMP
- NAT
Correct answer: BOOTP/DHCP relay agent
A DHCP relay agent (based on BOOTP) forwards DHCP broadcast messages across subnet boundaries to a DHCP server on another subnet.
Question 47: An administrator needs to configure Windows Server 2008 R2 to issue certificates automatically to domain computers for IPsec. Which role service should be deployed?
- Network Policy Server with RADIUS
- Active Directory Certificate Services with autoenrollment (Correct answer)
- Active Directory Federation Services
- Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct answer: Active Directory Certificate Services with autoenrollment
AD CS with autoenrollment allows Group Policy to automatically enroll domain computers in certificate templates, enabling IPsec authentication.
Question 48: What is a DNS stub zone used for?
- Hosting reverse lookup records
- Caching frequently queried records
- Providing read-only copy of a primary zone
- Storing only NS and SOA records of another zone (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Storing only NS and SOA records of another zone
A stub zone contains only the SOA, NS, and glue A records needed to contact the authoritative name servers of another zone.
Question 49: What role does data analytics play in MCTS 70-642 Exam practice?
- It replaces professional judgment
- It creates unnecessary complexity
- It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data (Correct answer)
- It is only for IT professionals
Correct answer: It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data
This is fundamental to MCTS 70-642 Exam practice. It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data represents the professional standard for technology in the MCTS 70-642 certification framework.
Question 50: A major stakeholder is concerned that a proposed DNS suffix search list change will break a legacy application. What is the best approach to address this concern?
- Document the concern but do not investigate it
- Acknowledge the concern, assess the risk in a test environment, and provide written findings before proceeding (Correct answer)
- Override the stakeholder's concern and implement the change immediately
- Remove the legacy application from the network
Correct answer: Acknowledge the concern, assess the risk in a test environment, and provide written findings before proceeding
Validating stakeholder concerns through testing and providing written findings demonstrates diligence and prevents unplanned outages.
Question 51: Your organization uses both IPv4 and IPv6 on computers spread across many sites. A firewall that implements symmetric NAT guards each location. Peer-to-peer communication must be permitted between all locations. What do need to do?
- Configure dynamic NAT on the firewall.
- Configure the firewall to allow the use of Teredo. (Correct answer)
- Configure a global IPv6 address for the external interface of the firewall.
- Configure a link local IPv6 address for the internal interface of the firewall.
Correct answer: Configure the firewall to allow the use of Teredo.
Teredo is an IPv6 transition technology designed to allow IPv6-enabled hosts to communicate over an IPv4 network, even when separated by NAT devices. Since the organization uses both IPv4 and IPv6 across sites with symmetric NAT firewalls, configuring the firewall to allow Teredo is necessary. This enables peer-to-peer IPv6 communication by tunneling IPv6 packets over UDP/IPv4, effectively traversing the NAT barriers.
Question 52: How should an MCTS 70-642 professional approach a novel situation not covered by standard procedures?
- Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions (Correct answer)
- Follow the closest standard procedure exactly
- Refuse to proceed
- Improvise without documentation
Correct answer: Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions
This is fundamental to MCTS 70-642 Exam practice. Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions represents the professional standard for practical in the MCTS 70-642 certification framework.
Question 53: What is the purpose of the metric value associated with a route in the Windows routing table?
- Specifies the VLAN tag
- Defines the maximum transmission unit
- Indicates the cost or preference of a route (lower is preferred) (Correct answer)
- Sets the TTL for routed packets
Correct answer: Indicates the cost or preference of a route (lower is preferred)
A route metric represents the cost of using that route; when multiple routes exist for the same destination, the route with the lowest metric is preferred.
Question 54: How should you configure client computers to enable NAP in a Windows Server 2008 domain environment?
- Use Windows Deployment Services to push NAP agent configuration
- Manually install the NAP client software on each computer
- Configure NAP client settings through the registry editor on each machine
- Enable the NAP client through Group Policy settings (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Enable the NAP client through Group Policy settings
Group Policy is the recommended method to configure and enable NAP enforcement clients on domain-joined computers at scale.
Question 55: A Windows Server 2008 network administrator is asked to verify that applied Group Policy Objects are functioning as intended. Which tool provides the most direct verification?
- Task Manager
- Windows Update
- Disk Defragmenter
- Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) / gpresult (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) / gpresult
gpresult and RSoP display the actual policies applied to a user or computer, confirming that GPOs are working as expected.
Question 56: Which authentication protocol for dial-up and VPN in Windows Server 2008 provides mutual authentication and encrypts credentials using MS-CHAPv2?
- PAP
- SPAP
- CHAP
- MS-CHAPv2 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: MS-CHAPv2
MS-CHAPv2 (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2) provides mutual authentication between client and server with encrypted credential exchange.
TS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring (70-642)
Validates IT professionals' skills in configuring Windows Server 2008 network infrastructure, including IP addressing, DNS, DHCP, remote access, network protection, and file and print services. Earns the MCTS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring credential.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds