Law School Admission Test (LSAT) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The Bee-Moth (Tinea mellonella), one of several honeybee adversaries, is by far the most feared in regions with hot summers. In this nation, its ravages have been so pervasive and deadly that millions have given up raising bees out of desperation, and in areas that used to produce copious amounts of the purest honey, beekeeping has progressively diminished into a very minor activity. Contrivances almost without number have been devised to defend the bees against this invidious foe, but still, it continues its desolating inroads, almost unchecked, laughing as it were to scorn at all the so-called "moth-proof" hives, and turning many of the ingenious fixtures designed to entrap or exclude it into actual aids and comforts in its nefarious designs. If I couldn't demonstrate to the apiarist how he may safely resist the pestilential assaults of this, his most obstinate foe, I would have little faith in my ability to turn beekeeping in our nation back into a sure and lucrative endeavor. After years of meticulously observing its behaviors, I can finally present a management strategy based on the unique design of my hives that will allow the diligent beekeeper to defend his colonies against the monster. Just like weeds take control of rich soil, the bee moth infests our apiaries. I'll briefly describe the moth's behavior before going into detail about the methods I use to avoid it. A very accurate description of this insect, known at the time as the "bee-wolf," was provided by Swammerdam toward the end of the seventeenth century. He provided good drawings of it in all its stages, from worm to perfect moth, as well as the unusual webs or galleries that it creates, from which some entomologists gave it the name Tinea galleria or "gallery moth." However, he was unable to distinguish between the male and female, which he mistakenly believed to be two distinct species of wax moth due to their extreme differences in size and appearance. It appears to have been a significant annoyance in his day, and even Virgil mentions the "drum tineae genus," the terrifying moth's progeny, or the worm. This destroyer often appears around the beehives around April or May, depending on how warm the weather is or how far into the season it is. It seldom takes to the air before midnight and is obviously mostly nocturnal in its habits (unless disturbed from its hiding location around the hive). However, on dark, overcast days, I have observed it flying far before sundown, and if many of these days pass in a row, the female may be seen attempting to enter the hives as she is under extreme pressure to deposit her eggs. The female is much bigger than the male, and "her color is deeper and more inclining to a darkish gray, with small spots or blackish streaks on the interior edge of her upper wings." The male's color tends more toward a light gray; they may easily be confused for different species of moths. Surprisingly nimble on land and in the air, these insects. In contrast, a bee's movements are extremely sluggish. The moths will be seen flying or running around the hives, looking for an opportunity to enter, while the bees that have to guard the entrances against their intrusion will be seen acting as vigilant sentinels, performing continuous rounds near this important post, extending their antenna to the maximum, and moving them to the right and left. The poor moth that gets in their way will suffer!"It is interesting to see how cunningly the moth knows how to profit, to the detriment of the bees, who need a lot of light to see objects, and the precautions taken by the latter in recognizing and driving out such a dangerous enemy," explains Huber. Which of these is the best antonym of the underlined word “nefarious” in the first paragraph?

Honest
Moral
Sinful
Righteous (Correct answer)
Truthful

Correct answer: Righteous

The bee-moth is described in the passage using the word as it "[turns] many of the ingenious fixtures design to entrap or exclude it, into actual aids and comforts in its nefarious designs." In other words, the moth is using the things that were intended to stop it for its nefarious, or wicked, designs. The greatest response alternative for "wicked" is "righteous," or good.

Question 2: A marathon training app added real-time heart rate monitoring and warned runners when they were overexerting. Yet the injury rate among app users increased compared to runners using no training app. Which of the following best explains this paradox?

Runners who used no app were mostly experienced veterans who already knew their limits; app users were beginners who ran more aggressively once they felt technologically monitored. (Correct answer)
The app's GPS tracking required runners to carry their phones, adding weight that stressed joints.
The heart rate warnings were calibrated incorrectly and encouraged runners to maintain dangerously high heart rates.
The overexertion warnings distracted runners from watching the road, causing more tripping injuries.

Correct answer: Runners who used no app were mostly experienced veterans who already knew their limits; app users were beginners who ran more aggressively once they felt technologically monitored.

Selection bias explains the finding: beginners disproportionately use apps and have higher baseline injury rates regardless of the app's utility.

Question 3: The argument 'You can't trust Dr. Chen's research on sugar; she consumes a lot of soda' is an example of which fallacy?

False equivalence
Ad hominem (tu quoque) (Correct answer)
Begging the question
Straw man

Correct answer: Ad hominem (tu quoque)

Attacking the researcher's personal habits rather than her methodology or data is a tu quoque (you also do it) form of ad hominem.

Question 4: A passage about the precautionary principle in environmental law states that under this principle, 'the absence of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation.' A critic of this principle would most likely argue that it:

Applies only to irreversible harms such as species extinction, not to recoverable damage
Requires an impossibly high level of scientific proof before any regulation can occur
Could justify regulatory action based on speculative harms, imposing costs without demonstrated benefits (Correct answer)
Was developed exclusively for international law and has no application in domestic regulatory contexts

Correct answer: Could justify regulatory action based on speculative harms, imposing costs without demonstrated benefits

The standard critique of the precautionary principle is that its low evidentiary threshold could support regulation of speculative risks, imposing real economic costs without clear evidence of harm.

Question 5: Argument: 'Professor Stein publishes frequently in top journals. Professors who publish frequently in top journals are respected researchers. Therefore, Professor Stein is a respected researcher.' Which best describes this argument's assumptions?

It requires no unstated assumption—it is deductively valid as stated (Correct answer)
It requires a sufficient assumption about journal rankings
It requires both a necessary and a sufficient assumption
It requires the necessary assumption that Stein enjoys research

Correct answer: It requires no unstated assumption—it is deductively valid as stated

The argument is a valid syllogism: the premises directly entail the conclusion with no hidden gaps.

Question 6: Eight runners finish a cross-country race. Runner A finishes immediately before runner B. Runner D finishes before runner E. Runner H finishes last. Runner F finishes first. Runner C finishes after runner G but before runner D. Which of the following is an acceptable finishing order?

G, F, C, A, B, D, E, H
F, G, C, A, B, D, E, H (Correct answer)
F, A, G, B, C, D, E, H
F, A, B, G, C, D, E, H
F, G, A, B, C, E, D, H

Correct answer: F, G, C, A, B, D, E, H

Check F, G, C, A, B, D, E, H: F(1) first ✓. A(4) immediately before B(5) ✓. D(6) before E(7) ✓. H(8) last ✓. G(2) before C(3) and C(3) before D(6) ✓. All conditions satisfied.

Question 7: Argument: 'This restaurant received a health code violation last year. I will not eat there.' Which necessary assumption does this argument rely on?

The restaurant has poor food quality
Health inspectors are always accurate
All restaurants with violations eventually close
A past health code violation indicates current or ongoing risk to diners (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A past health code violation indicates current or ongoing risk to diners

The argument moves from a past violation to a current decision, so it must assume the past violation is still relevant to present risk.

Question 8: Argument: 'Some politicians who accept corporate donations vote against consumer protection laws. Senator Dale accepts corporate donations. Therefore, Senator Dale will vote against consumer protection laws.' The reasoning most closely parallels which of the following?

Some athletes who train at altitude improve their performance. Coach Rivera trains at altitude. Therefore, Rivera will improve her performance. (Correct answer)
All athletes who use banned substances should be disqualified. This athlete used banned substances. Therefore, this athlete should be disqualified.
Some investors who take risks lose money. This investor took a risk. Therefore, this investor is likely to lose money.
Most doctors recommend exercise. Dr. Park is a doctor. Therefore, Dr. Park recommends exercise.

Correct answer: Some athletes who train at altitude improve their performance. Coach Rivera trains at altitude. Therefore, Rivera will improve her performance.

Both arguments move from 'some members of group X have property Y' to 'this member of group X will have property Y,' committing the same fallacious inference.

Question 9: Which of the following is a necessary assumption for the argument 'Since no evidence of fraud was found, the election was fair'?

The ballots were counted accurately
The election officials were honest
Voters were satisfied with the outcome
If the election were unfair, evidence of fraud would have been found (Correct answer)

Correct answer: If the election were unfair, evidence of fraud would have been found

The argument assumes that fraud leaves detectable evidence; without this, the absence of evidence wouldn't indicate absence of fraud.

Question 10: Which of the following is a valid deductive argument form tested on the LSAT?

Circular reasoning
Denying the antecedent
Modus tollens (Correct answer)
Affirming the consequent

Correct answer: Modus tollens

Modus tollens ('If P then Q; not Q; therefore not P') is a valid argument form frequently tested in LSAT conditional reasoning.

Question 11: Which reasoning error in the following argument most closely resembles equivocation: 'Laws should be followed because they express the will of the people. The law of gravity expresses how nature works. Therefore, the law of gravity should be followed'?

Assuming that natural laws and legal laws have the same moral weight.
Using the word 'law' in two different senses to reach an invalid conclusion. (Correct answer)
Failing to consider that the law of gravity cannot be disobeyed.
Confusing a descriptive claim with a normative one.

Correct answer: Using the word 'law' in two different senses to reach an invalid conclusion.

The argument exploits the word 'law,' which means a legislative rule in the first premise and a natural regularity in the second, to draw a conclusion that conflates the two.

Question 12: A criminologist argues that legalizing marijuana in State Y reduced opioid overdose deaths because overdose deaths fell after legalization. Which most weakens this argument?

State Y also increased spending on drug treatment programs.
Marijuana legalization generates significant tax revenue for states.
Some people use marijuana and opioids simultaneously.
Opioid overdose deaths fell at the same rate in neighboring states that did not legalize marijuana, suggesting a national trend rather than a state-specific cause. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Opioid overdose deaths fell at the same rate in neighboring states that did not legalize marijuana, suggesting a national trend rather than a state-specific cause.

If comparable states saw the same decline without legalization, the reduction likely reflects broader national factors, not the state's legalization policy.

Question 13: A passage describes how the Clean Air Act directs the EPA to set air quality standards 'requisite to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety.' The author argues this language grants the EPA broad discretion. Which of the following, if true, would most support this interpretation?

The EPA has historically set standards stricter than those recommended by the scientific community
Congress rejected proposed amendments that would have required cost-benefit analysis in standard-setting (Correct answer)
Several states have adopted air quality standards that exceed federal minimums
The statute was enacted in 1970 before modern risk assessment methodologies existed

Correct answer: Congress rejected proposed amendments that would have required cost-benefit analysis in standard-setting

Congress's rejection of cost-benefit requirements shows it deliberately left EPA unconstrained by economic considerations, supporting broad health-protective discretion.

Question 14: On a three-week trial, Pauline is a trial paralegal assisting lawyer Leni Osaka. Pauline spent a lot of time creating trial notebooks, an electronic database, and evidence for the courtroom. Pauline assists Leni with the jury selection procedure and a PowerPoint® presentation utilized during the opening statements after the trial has begun. Leni discovers that Pauline is highly skilled and adept at anticipating her requirements as the trial goes on, enabling her to make a compelling and polished argument before the jury. Personal note: Pauline likes using her Facebook® page to connect with her friends and family. Pauline comments on her public Facebook® page the night before closing arguments that she has been working on a trial and finds one of the jurors to be rather beautiful. Did Pauline make a wise decision when she made that comment?

Yes, because Pauline’s comment on her Facebook® page is protected as a form of free speech.
No, because she did not discuss the posting with Leni before she posted it on her Facebook® page.
Yes, because no one will take a paralegal’s comments on a Facebook® page seriously.
No, because the Facebook® posting was public and could be viewed as an attempt to influence the juror. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No, because the Facebook® posting was public and could be viewed as an attempt to influence the juror.

Pauline's public comment about a juror, even if seemingly innocuous, creates an appearance of impropriety and could be viewed as an attempt to influence the juror or compromise the impartiality of the trial. Legal professionals, including paralegals, are bound by ethical rules that require them to avoid actions that could undermine the integrity of the judicial process. A public social media post about a juror directly violates these principles.

Question 15: Six colored balls—red, blue, green, orange, white, black—are placed in a row. Blue is adjacent to green. Orange is not third. White is fifth. Black is not adjacent to white. Red is first. If blue is second, what must be true?

Green is fourth.
Green is third. (Correct answer)
Orange is sixth.
Orange is fourth.
Black is third.

Correct answer: Green is third.

Red=1, Blue=2, White=5. Blue is adjacent to green: since blue is second, green must be in position 1 or 3. Position 1 is red, so green must be third.

Question 16: In a linear ordering game, six items — 1 through 6 — are arranged in a line. Item 3 is not adjacent to item 4. Item 5 is somewhere to the right of item 2. Item 1 is in position 1. Which of the following positions can item 3 occupy?

Position 2 only
Any position except 1 and 5
Positions 2, 5, or 6
Positions 2, 4, or 6 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Positions 2, 4, or 6

Item 1 is in position 1; item 3 cannot be adjacent to item 4, meaning 3 and 4 cannot be next to each other; testing positions 2, 4, and 6 for item 3 shows each can satisfy the non-adjacency and ordering constraints.

Question 17: Like a _ is to a __, an automobile is to a tire.

ice : water
street : sidewalk
eagle : falcon
book : page (Correct answer)

Correct answer: book : page

A 'tire' is a fundamental and essential component of an 'automobile,' necessary for its primary function of movement. It represents a crucial part-to-whole relationship. Option D, 'book : page,' best mirrors this relationship. A 'page' is an essential and integral part of a 'book,' without which the book cannot exist in its typical form or convey its content. Both analogies describe a critical component that enables the function and existence of the larger whole.

Question 18: In a tournament, five teams—P, Q, R, S, T—play in sequence across five rounds. T plays before S. Q plays immediately before R. P plays last. If Q plays second, what is the maximum number of positions T could occupy?

1 (Correct answer)
2
5
3
4

Correct answer: 1

Q=2, R=3 (immediately after Q), P=5. Positions 1 and 4 remain for T and S, with T before S. The only valid assignment is T=1 and S=4. T can only occupy position 1.

Question 19: Seven students — 1 through 7 — line up. Student A is not first. Student B is immediately before student C. Student D is somewhere after student E. If student B is fourth, which of the following could be a complete and accurate ordering of students E, D?

E in position 5, D in position 3
E in position 2, D in position 1
E in position 7, D in position 6
E in position 6, D in position 7 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: E in position 6, D in position 7

E must come before D; E in 6 and D in 7 satisfies E<D, and with B in 4 and C in 5, there are no additional conflicts.

Question 20: Argument: 'Residents who exercise regularly have lower stress. The new recreation center will encourage residents to exercise. So the recreation center will lower stress among residents.' Which is a sufficient assumption for this argument?

The recreation center will be the only exercise facility in town
Any increase in regular exercise among residents will lower their stress levels (Correct answer)
The recreation center will be affordable for all residents
Stress is the primary health concern of residents

Correct answer: Any increase in regular exercise among residents will lower their stress levels

This assumption bridges the chain: more exercise from the center → lower stress, making the conclusion logically follow.

Question 21: A sociologist argues that social media use causes loneliness in young adults because surveys show heavy social media users report higher loneliness. Which most weakens this argument?

Young adults use social media for a variety of purposes.
Lonely young adults may turn to social media as a substitute for in-person connection, meaning loneliness precedes heavy use. (Correct answer)
Mental health issues are increasing among young adults generally.
Social media platforms are designed to maximize engagement time.

Correct answer: Lonely young adults may turn to social media as a substitute for in-person connection, meaning loneliness precedes heavy use.

If lonely people gravitate toward social media, the correlation reflects the effect of loneliness on usage, not the reverse.

Question 22: Passage (continued from above): According to the passage, when res ipsa loquitur applies, what effect does it have on the parties' burdens?

It prevents the defendant from presenting any defense at trial.
It eliminates the plaintiff's need to prove causation entirely.
It entitles the plaintiff to automatic damages without further proceedings.
It transfers the burden of proving damages from the plaintiff to the defendant.
It creates an inference of negligence and shifts the burden of explanation to the defendant. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It creates an inference of negligence and shifts the burden of explanation to the defendant.

The passage states res ipsa 'creates an inference of negligence that shifts the burden to the defendant to provide an explanation.'

Question 23: Seven runners — F, G, H, I, J, K, L — finish a race in distinct positions 1–7. G finishes immediately before H. J finishes after K but before I. F finishes last. Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of runners who CANNOT finish third?

F, H, I
F, I, L
F, G, I (Correct answer)
F, G, H

Correct answer: F, G, I

F is fixed at 7th; G must be followed immediately by H so G cannot be 7th or 6th unless space allows, but G and H must have H directly after G; I must come after J and after K, requiring at least two runners before it, so I cannot be 1st, 2nd, or (given constraints) 3rd.

Question 24: A science-law passage discusses patent eligibility for genetic sequences. The author would most likely agree that:

All naturally occurring genetic sequences should be freely patentable
Genetic sequences patented before 2013 should be retroactively invalidated
The distinction between discovery and invention is central to determining patent eligibility for genetic material (Correct answer)
Patent law should be interpreted exclusively by scientists rather than courts

Correct answer: The distinction between discovery and invention is central to determining patent eligibility for genetic material

The discovery-versus-invention distinction is the foundational legal question in genetic patent eligibility cases, particularly after Association for Molecular Pathology v. Myriad Genetics.

Question 25: Which type of Logic Game requires players to be assigned to exactly one of several groups?

Grouping game (Correct answer)
Sequencing game
Mapping game
Hybrid game

Correct answer: Grouping game

Grouping games distribute a set of elements into distinct groups, often with restrictions on who can be together.

Question 26: A city argues that its new after-school tutoring program increased graduation rates, pointing to a rise from 78% to 85% graduation rate after implementation. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

The tutoring program employed certified teachers.
The program served 300 students in its first year.
Neighboring cities without similar programs showed no comparable improvement in graduation rates during the same period. (Correct answer)
The program was funded by a federal education grant.
Tutoring has been shown to improve academic confidence.

Correct answer: Neighboring cities without similar programs showed no comparable improvement in graduation rates during the same period.

A comparison group showing no improvement rules out external factors (economic conditions, demographic shifts) as alternative explanations, strengthening the inference that the program caused the improvement.

Question 27: A criminologist argues that longer prison sentences deter crime because potential criminals weigh the costs and benefits before acting. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Prison conditions affect rehabilitation outcomes.
Prison is a significant cost to taxpayers.
Alternative sentencing programs have been implemented in some jurisdictions.
Recidivism rates have remained stubbornly high despite increasing sentence lengths.
Most crimes are committed impulsively or under the influence of substances, without rational cost-benefit calculation. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Most crimes are committed impulsively or under the influence of substances, without rational cost-benefit calculation.

If crimes are typically impulsive or substance-influenced, the rational deterrence model doesn't apply—potential criminals aren't making the calculations assumed by the deterrence theory.

Question 28: In an LSAT social science passage, the author writes: 'Studies conducted in the 1960s suggested that television viewing reduced social interaction, but more recent research has challenged this conclusion.' The author's purpose in mentioning the earlier studies is most likely to:

Show that modern researchers disagree with all earlier social science findings
Demonstrate that 1960s research methods were fundamentally flawed
Provide historical context that establishes the origins of an ongoing debate (Correct answer)
Argue that television has always been harmful to social bonds

Correct answer: Provide historical context that establishes the origins of an ongoing debate

Mentioning the earlier studies establishes the historical background of the debate, giving context to the more recent research that challenges those findings.

Question 29: An electric utility implemented a conservation program offering rebates to customers who reduced electricity consumption. Total electricity consumption in the service area increased during the program year. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

The program was not widely publicized to customers.
The rebate amounts were too small to motivate most customers.
The rebate program attracted energy-intensive businesses to the service area due to lower effective electricity costs, adding more consumption than the program saved. (Correct answer)
Electricity prices increased during the program year due to fuel costs.
Utility customers are generally resistant to behavioral change programs.

Correct answer: The rebate program attracted energy-intensive businesses to the service area due to lower effective electricity costs, adding more consumption than the program saved.

The rebate reduced effective electricity costs, attracting businesses with high energy consumption that more than offset the conservation savings—the program's incentive had an unintended macroeconomic effect.

Question 30: A game requires selecting 3 from {A, B, C, D, E}. The constraint is: 'Exactly one of B or C must be selected.' If B is not selected, which is true?

C is not selected
A must be selected
C must be selected (Correct answer)
The selection is invalid

Correct answer: C must be selected

The 'exactly one' constraint means if B is out, C must be in to satisfy the requirement.

Question 31: An LSAT reading comprehension passage about Renaissance art states: 'Although Leonardo da Vinci is celebrated for his paintings, he spent far more time on scientific drawings and notebooks.' What is the primary function of this statement in the passage?

To explain why Leonardo produced fewer finished paintings than other Renaissance masters
To introduce evidence that Renaissance artists were routinely also scientists
To argue that Leonardo's scientific work was more important than his paintings
To correct a common misconception about the primary focus of Leonardo's work (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To correct a common misconception about the primary focus of Leonardo's work

The word 'although' signals a contrast with prevailing assumptions, indicating the author is correcting the impression that painting was Leonardo's primary focus.

Question 32: Passage: The doctrine of standing in federal courts derives from Article III of the Constitution, which limits federal judicial power to 'cases' and 'controversies.' To have standing, a plaintiff must demonstrate three elements established in Lujan v. Defenders of Wildlife (1992): (1) an injury in fact that is concrete and particularized, and actual or imminent; (2) a causal connection between the injury and the challenged conduct; and (3) a likelihood that the injury will be redressed by a favorable decision. Organizational plaintiffs face additional challenges: an organization may sue on behalf of its members if (a) the members would have standing individually, (b) the interests at stake are germane to the organization's purpose, and (c) neither the claim asserted nor the relief requested requires individual member participation. Standing doctrine has been criticized as an access barrier that prevents courts from addressing widespread but diffuse harms—such as environmental or civil rights violations—where individual injury may be difficult to prove with the required specificity. Which of the following is a correct statement of the injury-in-fact requirement according to the passage?

The injury must be directly caused by a statute or government regulation.
The injury must affect a large number of people to qualify as significant.
The injury must have occurred in the past and cannot be anticipated in the future.
The injury must be concrete and particularized, and actual or imminent. (Correct answer)
The injury must be economic in nature to satisfy federal court requirements.

Correct answer: The injury must be concrete and particularized, and actual or imminent.

The passage directly states the injury-in-fact element requires 'an injury in fact that is concrete and particularized, and actual or imminent.'

Question 33: Argument: 'All successful startup founders are risk-takers. All risk-takers are optimistic. Therefore, all successful startup founders are optimistic.' The reasoning in which of the following arguments is most similar?

All dogs are mammals. All mammals are animals. Therefore, all dogs are animals. (Correct answer)
Some politicians are lawyers. Some lawyers are honest. Therefore, some politicians are honest.
All birds can fly. A penguin is a bird. Therefore, a penguin can fly.
All cars have wheels. All wheels are round. Therefore, all cars have something that is round.

Correct answer: All dogs are mammals. All mammals are animals. Therefore, all dogs are animals.

This is a classic example of a transitive property in logic, or a categorical syllogism. The structure is: All A are B. All B are C. Therefore, all A are C. Answer B perfectly replicates this structure: All dogs (A) are mammals (B). All mammals (B) are animals (C). Therefore, all dogs (A) are animals (C). Answer A is slightly different in its conclusion. Answer C uses 'some' instead of 'all', which is a different logical structure (and is invalid). Answer D applies a general rule to a specific instance, which is also a different pattern of reasoning.

Question 34: An economist argues that foreign aid to developing countries reduces poverty because recipient countries show economic improvement following aid disbursements. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

The UN recommends that developed nations contribute a percentage of GDP to foreign aid.
Aid organizations have high administrative costs.
Countries that receive aid also frequently receive concurrent trade deals, debt relief, and private investment that could independently drive economic improvement. (Correct answer)
Some aid goes to authoritarian governments.
Foreign aid is often tied to requirements that recipient countries purchase goods from the donor nation.

Correct answer: Countries that receive aid also frequently receive concurrent trade deals, debt relief, and private investment that could independently drive economic improvement.

Concurrent factors (trade deals, debt relief, private investment) could independently explain economic improvement, meaning aid's causal role cannot be established from the correlation alone.

Question 35: Which of the following most accurately describes the method of reasoning called 'modus tollens'?

If P then Q; P is false; therefore Q is false.
If P then Q; Q is false; therefore P is false. (Correct answer)
If P then Q; Q is true; therefore P is true.
If P then Q; P is true; therefore Q is true.

Correct answer: If P then Q; Q is false; therefore P is false.

Modus tollens denies the consequent to deny the antecedent: if the 'then' part is false, the 'if' part must also be false.

Question 36: A dietitian argues that a low-fat diet is the most effective for weight loss because clinical studies in the 1980s and 1990s showed participants lost weight on such diets. Which most weakens this argument?

Diet compliance is difficult to maintain in long-term studies.
Dietary research methods have improved significantly since the 1980s.
More recent and larger controlled trials consistently show low-fat and low-carbohydrate diets produce equivalent long-term weight loss, eliminating the claimed advantage of the low-fat approach. (Correct answer)
Fat contains more calories per gram than protein or carbohydrates.

Correct answer: More recent and larger controlled trials consistently show low-fat and low-carbohydrate diets produce equivalent long-term weight loss, eliminating the claimed advantage of the low-fat approach.

If newer, higher-quality evidence shows no advantage over other approaches, the older studies do not support the claim that low-fat is the most effective strategy.

Question 37: An urban planner argues that mixed-use zoning (combining residential and commercial space) reduces car dependency because residents can walk to shops and services. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

If mixed-use areas are developed in suburban locations far from employment centers, residents may still need cars to commute to work. (Correct answer)
Walking reduces carbon emissions compared to driving.
Mixed-use developments typically have higher property values.
Mixed-use areas can increase neighborhood vitality and street activity.
Several European cities have successfully implemented mixed-use zoning.

Correct answer: If mixed-use areas are developed in suburban locations far from employment centers, residents may still need cars to commute to work.

If residents can walk to retail but still must drive to work—which is typically the largest travel demand—car dependency may not be meaningfully reduced.

Question 38: Countries that increased spending on foreign aid have sometimes seen the recipient countries' domestic industries weaken, despite the intention to help their economies. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

Foreign aid is often misappropriated by corrupt government officials.
Aid organizations employ local workers, raising wages.
Aid money inflates the local currency, making domestic exports more expensive on international markets and less competitive, thereby harming local industries. (Correct answer)
The terms of aid agreements often require purchasing goods from donor countries.
Recipient countries become dependent on aid rather than developing internal revenue sources.

Correct answer: Aid money inflates the local currency, making domestic exports more expensive on international markets and less competitive, thereby harming local industries.

Dutch disease effect: large inflows of foreign currency inflate the exchange rate, making domestic exports uncompetitive internationally, weakening export-oriented industries—a well-documented macroeconomic paradox of resource/aid windfalls.

Question 39: Urban Planner: Many cities attempt to solve traffic congestion by building more highways. The logic is that more lanes will create more capacity. However, this approach is often counterproductive. The phenomenon of 'induced demand' shows that new, wider highways attract more drivers, quickly filling the added capacity and leading to the same, or even worse, levels of congestion. The only long-term solution is to shift focus away from accommodating more cars and toward developing robust public transportation systems that reduce the number of cars on the road.

Cities must prioritize the development of public transportation over the construction of new highways to effectively combat traffic congestion. (Correct answer)
Building new highways is a costly and ineffective way to address the problem of traffic congestion.
Traffic congestion is a complex problem that has both short-term and long-term consequences for urban areas.
The phenomenon of 'induced demand' is the primary reason that attempts to solve traffic congestion fail.

Correct answer: Cities must prioritize the development of public transportation over the construction of new highways to effectively combat traffic congestion.

This is the main point because it represents the planner's ultimate recommendation and solution. The passage first critiques a common approach (building highways) and explains why it fails (induced demand). This all serves as a foundation to argue for the alternative solution presented in the final sentence. Choice A is a premise that supports the conclusion, but it isn't the final recommendation. Choice B is also a supporting reason, explaining *why* the highway approach fails. Choice D is a true but overly general statement that isn't the specific argument being made.

Question 40: An LSAT humanities passage describes how Baroque composers 'deliberately employed dissonance to create tension that was then resolved.' What does this technique suggest about the composers' understanding of listener experience?

They used dissonance because consonant harmonies were technically difficult to achieve
They understood that building tension and then resolving it creates emotional satisfaction (Correct answer)
They believed listeners preferred dissonance over consonance as the dominant musical sound
They composed primarily for trained musicians who could intellectually appreciate dissonance

Correct answer: They understood that building tension and then resolving it creates emotional satisfaction

Deliberately creating tension through dissonance and then resolving it demonstrates that composers understood this sequence produces an emotionally satisfying experience for listeners.

Question 41: An economist argues that free trade agreements benefit developing countries more than developed ones. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed. (B) Free trade agreements have been controversial in many developed countries due to concerns about job losses. (C) Not all developing countries have benefited equally from past free trade agreements. (D) Developed countries already have access to most global markets even without formal agreements.

Free trade agreements have been controversial in many developed countries due to concerns about job losses.
Developed countries already have access to most global markets even without formal agreements.
Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed. (Correct answer)
Not all developing countries have benefited equally from past free trade agreements.

Correct answer: Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed.

Option A identifies a structural advantage developing countries have when trade barriers are removed, directly supporting the claim that they benefit more.

Question 42: A social scientist argues that income inequality causes social unrest, citing a correlation between higher inequality (measured by Gini coefficient) and greater political instability across countries. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Some highly unequal countries have remained politically stable for decades.
Political scientists disagree about the causes of social unrest.
The Gini coefficient is a commonly used measure of income distribution.
International organizations track income inequality data annually.
Historical analysis shows that periods of increasing inequality in stable societies are reliably followed by increases in social unrest, before external factors changed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Historical analysis shows that periods of increasing inequality in stable societies are reliably followed by increases in social unrest, before external factors changed.

Temporal sequencing (inequality increases followed by unrest increases) within societies provides stronger causal evidence than cross-sectional correlation, and the phrase 'before external factors changed' helps rule out reverse causation.

Question 43: Which of the following is an example of a 'conditional reasoning' statement on the LSAT?

If a candidate passes the bar exam, then the candidate is a licensed attorney. (Correct answer)
Most students who study hard achieve high scores on standardized tests.
Many law schools prefer applicants with high undergraduate GPAs.
Law school admission is becoming increasingly competitive each year.

Correct answer: If a candidate passes the bar exam, then the candidate is a licensed attorney.

Conditional reasoning follows an 'if–then' structure where the sufficient condition guarantees the necessary condition — the bar exam example perfectly illustrates this form.

Question 44: A psychologist argues that therapy is effective for treating depression because patients who complete therapy courses report lower depression symptoms than before treatment. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Several types of therapy, including CBT and DBT, are used for depression.
Some patients drop out of therapy before completing their course.
The psychologist measured symptoms using a standardized scale.
Therapy is often combined with medication.
Depression often resolves naturally over time, so patients might have improved without any treatment. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Depression often resolves naturally over time, so patients might have improved without any treatment.

Natural remission means improvement could occur regardless of treatment, making it impossible to attribute recovery to therapy without a proper control group.

Question 45: Choose the response that fully answers the following: Every comic is a cynic. Henry is a funny guy.

All persons named Henry are cynics.
All persons named Henry are cynics.
Henry is a cynic. (Correct answer)
All cynics are comedians.

Correct answer: Henry is a cynic.

The question presents two premises: 'Every comic is a cynic' and 'Henry is a funny guy.' To logically conclude 'Henry is a cynic,' there must be an unstated premise connecting 'funny guy' to 'comic.' Assuming that 'funny guy' in this context implies 'comic,' the argument becomes a classic syllogism: All comics are cynics; Henry is a comic; therefore, Henry is a cynic. This deduction directly leads to the correct answer.

Question 46: Passage: 'Every contract requires offer, acceptance, and consideration. This agreement has offer and acceptance but no consideration.' The strongest conclusion is:

This agreement can be enforced at the court's discretion.
This agreement is a valid contract.
This agreement is not a valid contract. (Correct answer)
This agreement lacks offer and acceptance.

Correct answer: This agreement is not a valid contract.

Since consideration is a necessary element and is missing, the agreement fails to meet the criteria for a valid contract.

Question 47: A sequencing game has seven slots. Variables include J, K, L, M, N. Constraint: K is in an earlier slot than both J and L. If K is in slot 4, which of the following must be true?

J and L are both in slots 5, 6, or 7. (Correct answer)
L is in slot 7.
J is immediately after K.
J is in a later slot than L.

Correct answer: J and L are both in slots 5, 6, or 7.

K in slot 4 means both J and L must come after position 4, so they must each be in slot 5, 6, or 7.

Question 48: Anthony: By staying on the middle path at all times, one can lead a moderate existence. However, doing so results in a loss of the fun of spontaneity and a failure to seize the chances that periodically present themselves to people who are willing to take big risks or go too far. Martha: However, a person who never takes a chance of going too far in the name of moderation is actually failing to live a life of moderation; one must be moderate even when exercising moderation. Anthony and Martha disagree over

how often a person ought to deviate from the middle course in life
What life of moderation requires of a person (Correct answer)
whether it is desirable for people occasionally to take great chances in life
whether it is desirable for people to be moderately spontaneous
whether it is desirable for people occasionally to take great chances in life

Correct answer: What life of moderation requires of a person

Anthony defines a moderate existence as strictly adhering to the 'middle path,' noting its trade-offs. Martha challenges this definition, arguing that true moderation *itself* requires a degree of flexibility, implying that never deviating from the middle path is actually a failure of moderation. Their fundamental disagreement lies in their differing interpretations of what a 'life of moderation requires of a person' – whether it's strict adherence or a more nuanced approach that includes occasional risk-taking.

Question 49: Principle: 'A regulation is justified only if the harm it prevents is greater than the burden it imposes on those regulated.' An economist argues that a proposed sugar tax is not justified. Which finding would most directly support this conclusion?

The government has a history of misusing tax revenue.
Sugar consumption causes measurable public health harm.
The tax would cost manufacturers $2 billion annually while preventing only $500 million in health costs. (Correct answer)
The tax would reduce sugar purchases by 15% among low-income families.

Correct answer: The tax would cost manufacturers $2 billion annually while preventing only $500 million in health costs.

If the burden ($2B on manufacturers) exceeds the harm prevented ($500M in health costs), the regulation fails to satisfy the stated principle's justification condition.

Question 50: An archaeologist argues that a coastal settlement was abandoned due to rising sea levels, rather than warfare or disease. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Historical records from the period are incomplete.
The inhabitants of the settlement were skilled fishermen.
Similar settlements in the same era were also abandoned.
The settlement shows signs of rapid abandonment rather than gradual decline.
Sediment core samples from the region show evidence of rapid sea-level rise occurring precisely at the time of the abandonment, with no evidence of mass casualties or violent destruction. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sediment core samples from the region show evidence of rapid sea-level rise occurring precisely at the time of the abandonment, with no evidence of mass casualties or violent destruction.

Geological evidence directly confirming sea-level rise at the abandonment date, combined with absence of warfare/disease evidence, supports the specific causal claim over the alternatives.

Question 51: Five countries—Brazil, Canada, Denmark, Egypt, France—present at a conference in sequence. Canada presents before France. Egypt presents immediately before Denmark. Brazil presents first. If France presents third, which position does Egypt occupy?

Second
Fourth (Correct answer)
Fifth
Third
Egypt cannot be placed in any valid position.

Correct answer: Fourth

Brazil is first. France is third. Canada is before France, so Canada is first or second. Brazil is first, so Canada must be second. Remaining: Egypt, Denmark in positions 4 and 5. Egypt immediately before Denmark: Egypt=4, Denmark=5.

Question 52: A passage explains that an employee was terminated for violating company policy, but notes the policy was never clearly communicated to employees. What can most reasonably be inferred?

The employee knew the policy and violated it anyway
Company policies do not require explicit communication to be enforceable
The fairness of the termination is questionable given the lack of clear communication (Correct answer)
The termination was illegal

Correct answer: The fairness of the termination is questionable given the lack of clear communication

Without clear communication of the policy, the employee's ability to comply was undermined, raising fairness concerns.

Question 53: In a scheduling game, five meetings — L, M, N, O, P — occur in five consecutive time slots. N occurs before O, and O occurs before P. M is not in slot 1 or slot 5. If L is in slot 3, which of the following must be true?

O is in slot 4
M is in slot 2
N is in slot 1
P is in slot 5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: P is in slot 5

With L in slot 3 and N-O-P occupying three consecutive-order slots, and M excluded from slots 1 and 5, the N-O-P chain must fit in the remaining slots; P, being last in its chain, is forced to slot 5.

Question 54: A labor market economist observes that during a recession, productivity per worker increases even as companies lay off workers. This seems paradoxical because lower employment is generally associated with economic weakness. Which of the following most helps to explain this finding?

Productivity statistics are calculated differently during economic downturns.
Recessions cause businesses to become more innovative.
Companies retain their most productive workers while laying off less productive ones, raising the average productivity of the remaining workforce. (Correct answer)
Workers fear losing their jobs during recessions and therefore work harder.
Recessions reduce consumer demand, requiring workers to produce less.

Correct answer: Companies retain their most productive workers while laying off less productive ones, raising the average productivity of the remaining workforce.

Compositional effect: by retaining high performers and releasing lower performers, the average productivity of the remaining workforce increases even if no individual worker became more productive.

Question 55: A gym teacher wants his six students to form a line from lowest to tallest in height order. Cassy and Kris are two young ladies. The boys are Barry, Jay, Wilson, and Darren. - Wilson is neither the tallest nor the shortest person. - There isn't a girl in the room who is taller than Jay. - Darren is taller than Theresa but shorter than Cassy. - Barry is the tallest of the group. Which of the following statements must be correct?

If Willson is 5th in line, Darren is 2nd in line. (Correct answer)
If Barry is tallest, Cassy is the 3rd tallest.
If Kris is shortest, Cassy is 2 spots behind her.
If Jay is 3rd tallest, Willson is 4th tallest.
If Darren is 2nd in line, Cassy must be 3rd

Correct answer: If Willson is 5th in line, Darren is 2nd in line.

Explanation: This can be answered by process of elimination. Barry being in 6th doesn't effect anyone, as he is always there. lf Jay is 3rd tallest, the only one who can be the 5th spot is Willson - thus, that answer is wrong. Kris must be the first person in line, so she doesn't affect any positioning. Thus, Cassy could be 3rd, or 4th in line, despite Kris position. Finally, if Darren is 2nd in line, Cassy is not guaranteed to be at the 3rd position. Will can be at the third position, pushing Cassy to the 4th.

Question 56: A science passage describes two competing hypotheses about the mass extinction at the Cretaceous-Paleogene boundary. The author states that 'neither hypothesis fully accounts for the global distribution of extinction patterns.' This statement functions primarily to:

Conclude that the asteroid impact hypothesis is more plausible than volcanic activity
Argue that extinction events cannot be explained by scientific methods
Indicate that the question remains open and that further evidence is needed (Correct answer)
Dismiss both hypotheses as scientifically worthless

Correct answer: Indicate that the question remains open and that further evidence is needed

Noting that neither hypothesis fully explains the evidence signals that the scientific debate is unresolved and invites further investigation.

Question 57: A passage about epidemiology and tort law discusses causation standards. The author notes that courts generally require proof that a defendant's conduct 'more likely than not' caused harm, while epidemiologists speak in terms of relative risk ratios. Which of the following best captures the tension the author identifies?

Epidemiological studies are inadmissible because they do not identify individual plaintiffs
Epidemiologists and lawyers define 'risk' using identical methodologies but different vocabularies
Courts should adopt relative risk ratios as the exclusive measure of legal causation
Legal standards demand certainty whereas epidemiology is inherently probabilistic, creating a mismatch in how causation is established (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Legal standards demand certainty whereas epidemiology is inherently probabilistic, creating a mismatch in how causation is established

The core tension is that legal causation requires a binary determination (more likely than not) while epidemiology produces probabilistic group-level data, making translation between the two disciplines imperfect.

Question 58: A coach argues that athletes who visualize success before competing perform better because mental rehearsal reinforces neural pathways for physical performance. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Athletes who are already highly skilled and confident may be more likely to use visualization, rather than visualization causing their high performance. (Correct answer)
Mental preparation is considered important in sports psychology.
The neural basis of motor learning supports the value of mental practice.
Visualization is used in therapy as well as athletic training.
Visualization techniques have been adopted by many elite athletes.

Correct answer: Athletes who are already highly skilled and confident may be more likely to use visualization, rather than visualization causing their high performance.

Selection bias: confident, skilled athletes are both more likely to use visualization and to perform well, so the correlation may not reflect a causal benefit of the technique.

Question 59: A Reading Comprehension passage describes the decline of a species, examines its causes, and concludes by arguing for a specific conservation strategy. What is the primary purpose?

To advocate for a particular approach to preventing species extinction (Correct answer)
To compare the species with other endangered animals
To document the historical range of the species
To describe the ecosystem in which the species lives

Correct answer: To advocate for a particular approach to preventing species extinction

The passage builds toward a policy recommendation, making advocacy for that conservation strategy its primary purpose.

Question 60: Premises: 'Either the defendant was at the scene or has an alibi. The defendant has no alibi.' The valid conclusion is:

The defendant had motive.
The defendant lied to police.
The defendant is guilty.
The defendant was at the scene. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The defendant was at the scene.

This is a valid disjunctive syllogism: denying one disjunct (no alibi) forces acceptance of the other (was at the scene).

Question 61: An LSAT argument concludes that a new study confirms that exercise improves memory. The study only measured participants who already exercised regularly. The argument is flawed because:

The study used too many participants to draw valid conclusions
The study sample is not representative of the general population (Correct answer)
The conclusion is stated too tentatively to be useful
Exercise has not been proven to affect physical health

Correct answer: The study sample is not representative of the general population

Studying only regular exercisers excludes sedentary people, making the sample unrepresentative and the conclusion an overgeneralization.

Question 62: A fitness company claims its protein supplement builds muscle faster because users who took the supplement for eight weeks gained more muscle than before the study. Which most weakens this argument?

Eight weeks is a common duration for fitness studies.
The supplement comes in several flavors.
Protein is a well-known macronutrient for muscle development.
The participants also began a new resistance training program during the eight weeks, which alone could explain the muscle gains. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The participants also began a new resistance training program during the eight weeks, which alone could explain the muscle gains.

If participants simultaneously started a training program, the exercise—not the supplement—likely caused the muscle gains.

Question 63: A politician argues that tax cuts will increase government revenue through economic growth because lower taxes encourage investment and spending. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Investment decisions depend on multiple factors beyond tax rates.
Multiple rounds of tax cuts over the past 30 years have consistently produced budget deficits rather than the projected revenue increases. (Correct answer)
Tax policy is complex and affects different income groups differently.
Tax rates affect both investment incentives and consumer spending.
Some economists support supply-side tax theories.

Correct answer: Multiple rounds of tax cuts over the past 30 years have consistently produced budget deficits rather than the projected revenue increases.

Historical evidence that prior tax cuts produced deficits rather than increased revenue provides direct empirical evidence against the theoretical prediction, strongly weakening the argument.

Question 64: The Secretary of State uses a system of tiers to rate nations based on their efforts to combat human trafficking to produce the Trafficking in Persons (TIPS) Report. The minimal requirements for becoming a Tier 1 country, which the United States considers to be a country in good standing, are fairly arbitrary. In order to "eliminate human trafficking," there must be "serious and sustained efforts" that include things like outlawing and prosecuting human trafficking offenses, putting policies in place to prevent future violations, raising awareness among the general public, and providing support for victims. Although Tier 2 nations still fall short of Tier 1 norms, they are making substantial efforts to do so. Countries on the Tier 2 Watch List satisfy the same requirements as Tier 2 countries but also one of the following conditions: 1) the number of victims of severe forms of trafficking is very significant or significantly increasing; 2) there is no evidence that efforts to combat severe forms of trafficking in persons have increased from the previous year; or 3) the determination that a country was making significant efforts to comply with minimum standards was based on that country's performance against other criteria. Tier 3 nations do not completely adhere to the basic requirements and do not make considerable attempts to do so. Tier 3 nations are subject to a number of sanctions, including the cessation of non-trade and non-humanitarian foreign assistance, the denial of funding for educational and cultural exchange programs, and potential U.S. opposition to assistance from international financial organizations like the World Bank and International Monetary Fund. The TIPS Report relies on U.S. embassies to meet with foreign government representatives on a regular basis in order to gather data regarding human trafficking in various nations throughout the world. It is considered to be the most thorough study on human trafficking in the world and is regarded as a reliable representation of the laws and policies in use around the globe. The TIPS Report specifically examines nations' counter-trafficking initiatives based on the measures implemented in the areas of prosecution, prevention, and protection. Whether or not there are laws against human trafficking and whether or not they are aggressively applied to offenders determines how effective a nation's prosecution efforts are. Raising public awareness of human trafficking and changing policies that render certain communities more susceptible to it than others should be the main goals of prevention efforts. Last but not least, protection initiatives work to meet the requirements of current or future victims. The primary purpose of the passage is most likely to

Quantify a qualitative issue
Describe a type of report produced by the United States (Correct answer)
Shed light on a complex issue
Describe the evolution of a program
Compare and contrast different forms of measurement

Correct answer: Describe a type of report produced by the United States

The TIPS Report and its creation are the text's sole subjects of discussion. Consequently, the best response is: Describe a sort of report that the United States produces.

Question 65: An LSAT passage about the Frye standard and the Daubert standard for expert scientific testimony states that Frye requires evidence to be 'generally accepted' in the relevant scientific community. Which of the following is a recognized criticism of the Frye standard compared to Daubert?

Frye allows testimony from witnesses who are not members of the relevant professional community
Frye requires courts to conduct their own independent scientific research before ruling on admissibility
Frye gives judges too much discretion to evaluate the reliability of scientific methodology
Frye may exclude novel but well-validated scientific methods that have not yet achieved widespread acceptance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Frye may exclude novel but well-validated scientific methods that have not yet achieved widespread acceptance

The classic Frye criticism is that the general-acceptance requirement can exclude cutting-edge, rigorously validated science that has simply not yet gained mainstream adoption.

Question 66: In LSAT terms, a 'must be false' question is asking for the answer that:

Cannot be true given the conditions of the game or argument (Correct answer)
Contradicts a stated premise
Is merely unlikely given the evidence
Weakens the conclusion most severely

Correct answer: Cannot be true given the conditions of the game or argument

A 'must be false' question requires identifying the answer that is impossible under the given constraints.

Question 67: The argument 'We should legalize marijuana because prohibition has failed, just as alcohol prohibition failed in the 1920s' relies primarily on which reasoning technique?

Appeal to authority by citing historical consensus.
Deductive reasoning from established legal principles.
Statistical induction from a large data set.
Analogical reasoning between two historical cases. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Analogical reasoning between two historical cases.

The argument draws a parallel between two historical prohibition situations, inferring that what happened with alcohol will apply to marijuana.

Question 68: In a sequencing game, six lectures—L1 through L6—are given in order. L3 is given before L5. L6 is given immediately before L2. Which of the following MUST be true?

L5 is given last
L4 is given before L6
L2 is not given first (Correct answer)
L1 is given before L3

Correct answer: L2 is not given first

Since L6 is immediately before L2, L2 cannot be first—at minimum L6 must precede it, placing L2 in position 2 or later.

Question 69: A forest service manager argues that controlled burns prevent devastating wildfires by reducing accumulated fuel load. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Areas that underwent controlled burns in previous years sustained significantly less damage when wildfires later swept through the region compared to adjacent unburned areas. (B) Controlled burns require significant resources and careful planning to execute safely. (C) Some environmental groups oppose controlled burns because they release carbon dioxide. (D) The number of wildfires has increased nationally over the past two decades.

Areas that underwent controlled burns in previous years sustained significantly less damage when wildfires later swept through the region compared to adjacent unburned areas. (Correct answer)
Some environmental groups oppose controlled burns because they release carbon dioxide.
Controlled burns require significant resources and careful planning to execute safely.
The number of wildfires has increased nationally over the past two decades.

Correct answer: Areas that underwent controlled burns in previous years sustained significantly less damage when wildfires later swept through the region compared to adjacent unburned areas.

Option A provides direct comparative evidence showing the predicted protective effect of controlled burns when actual wildfires occurred.

Question 70: Nine items are distributed into 3 groups of 3. Item X and Item Y must be in the same group. Item Y and Item Z must be in different groups. If X is in Group 1, which must be true?

Y is in Group 2 or 3 (Correct answer)
Z is in Group 1 with X
Y is in Group 1 and Z is in Group 1
Z is in Group 1

Correct answer: Y is in Group 2 or 3

X in Group 1 forces Y to Group 1; Y and Z cannot share a group, so Z must be in Group 2 or 3—meaning Y is in Group 1 (not 2 or 3), but Z is not in Group 1, confirming Z is in Group 2 or 3.

Question 71: For a new project, a landscape architect is choosing trees. Seven different tree species are available for the architect to select from: a Maple, a River Birch, an Oak, a Sycamore, a Chestnut, a Blue Spruce, and a Pine. The trees will be planted in two different locations, designated as area 1 and area 2, respectively. The following restrictions must be followed while planting the trees: ‥ There are only three distinct tree species in each area, and there are three different species in each area. ‥ In any location, no more than one tree of the same kind may be planted. ‥ If a river birch is present, neither a blue spruce nor a pine may grow there. ‥ A river birch or an oak must also be present where there is a sycamore tree. ‥ Where there is an oak, there must also be a maple. Which of the following CANNOT be true?

A river birch is not selected.
A blue spruce is in area 1 and a Pine is in area 2. (Correct answer)
A Sycamore and a Maple are planted in area 2.
An oak and a chestnut tree are both in area 1.
A pine is not selected.

Correct answer: A blue spruce is in area 1 and a Pine is in area 2.

Area 1 (Sycamore, River Birch, Maple) is valid: the sycamore is paired with a river birch as required, and the river birch's presence is fine since no blue spruce or pine joins it. Area 2 (Blue Spruce, Pine, Chestnut) breaks no rule since it has no river birch, sycamore, or oak. Every other option violates a constraint—e.g., a river birch sharing an area with blue spruce/pine, or an oak with no maple.

Question 72: A city planner argues that installing more streetlights in high-crime neighborhoods will reduce crime because criminals prefer to operate in darkness. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Some crimes, such as fraud, occur indoors and are unaffected by lighting.
Residents in the neighborhoods support the streetlight initiative.
Criminals may simply move their activities to adjacent unlit areas rather than stopping. (Correct answer)
The city has successfully used streetlights to reduce crime in one previous instance.
Streetlights are expensive to install and maintain.

Correct answer: Criminals may simply move their activities to adjacent unlit areas rather than stopping.

If criminals merely relocate to darker areas rather than ceasing criminal activity, the overall crime rate is unchanged—the plan reduces local crime but doesn't reduce total crime.

Question 73: Passage A A proactive, rights-driven approach is essential for regulating artificial intelligence (AI). We cannot afford to wait for harms to manifest before we act. The rapid, unpredictable evolution of AI means that a reactive, market-driven model is dangerously inadequate. Lawmakers must establish clear, legally binding rules that classify AI systems by risk, prohibiting those that pose an 'unacceptable' threat to safety and fundamental rights, and subjecting 'high-risk' systems to stringent requirements before they are deployed. This approach, while potentially slowing some innovation, prioritizes human safety and societal well-being over corporate profits, creating a framework of trust for sustainable AI development. Passage B Effective governance of artificial intelligence (AI) requires a flexible, market-driven approach that fosters innovation. A heavy-handed, proactive regulatory regime, like the EU's AI Act, risks stifling progress with complex, rigid rules that become obsolete almost as soon as they are written. Over-regulation will drive innovators to other markets and prevent the development of beneficial technologies. The better path is to rely on a combination of voluntary industry standards, sector-specific guidelines, and targeted enforcement against concrete harms after they occur. This allows for rapid technological advancement while ensuring that accountability mechanisms exist to address real-world problems without preemptively crippling a transformative technology. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two passages?

Passage B provides a historical context for the regulatory model advocated in Passage A.
They present opposing strategies for addressing a shared central problem. (Correct answer)
They discuss similar topics but have no direct points of agreement or disagreement.
Passage A proposes a solution to a problem that Passage B argues does not exist.

Correct answer: They present opposing strategies for addressing a shared central problem.

Both passages clearly identify the central problem: how to best govern/regulate artificial intelligence. They then propose diametrically opposed strategies to solve this problem. Passage A advocates for a 'proactive, rights-driven approach' with strict, preemptive rules. Passage B advocates for a 'flexible, market-driven approach' that is largely reactive and relies on voluntary standards. Therefore, they are presenting opposing solutions to the same issue. Choice A is incorrect because Passage B acknowledges the problem of AI governance. Choice B is incorrect as there is no historical context provided. Choice D is incorrect because they directly disagree on the fundamental strategy for regulation.

Question 74: A psychologist claims that watching violent television programs causes aggression in children because children who watch more violent TV exhibit more aggressive behavior. Which most weakens this argument?

Parents should monitor their children's television consumption.
Children with aggressive temperaments may be more drawn to violent programming, rather than the reverse. (Correct answer)
Violent television programs are rated for mature audiences.
Aggressive behavior can take many different forms.

Correct answer: Children with aggressive temperaments may be more drawn to violent programming, rather than the reverse.

Pre-existing aggression may drive children to seek out violent content, reversing the causal direction of the argument.

Question 75: Six toys are distributed among three children—Child 1, Child 2, Child 3—with each child receiving exactly 2 toys. Toys are W, X, Y, Z, V, U. W and X cannot go to the same child. Y and Z must go to the same child. V goes to Child 1. U goes to Child 3. If W goes to Child 2, which of the following must be true?

Y and Z go to Child 1.
Y and Z go to Child 2.
X goes to Child 3. (Correct answer)
Y and Z go to Child 3.
X goes to Child 1.

Correct answer: X goes to Child 3.

V=Child1, U=Child3. W=Child2 (given). W and X not same child: X not Child2. Y and Z same child. Remaining: X,Y,Z to distribute. Child1 has V+one more, Child2 has W+one more, Child3 has U+one more. X not Child2: X goes to Child1 or Child3. Y and Z must go to the same child: they fill one child's second slot together—but each child gets exactly 2. Y and Z need to be together, requiring one child to have both Y and Z. But each child only gets 2 total: if Y and Z are both with one child, that child's 2 toys are Y and Z (and their other toy is one of V,W,U which are already assigned). So: Y and Z must form a child's complete pair. Child1: V + ?, Child2: W + ?, Child3: U + ?. Y and Z together means one of the children gets Y and Z as their pair—but each child already has one toy (V,W,U). Contradiction—unless Y and Z are the second toys? No, each child gets exactly 2, and Y-Z is 2 toys needing to go to ONE child who already has 1. This creates a contradiction. Re-reading: 6 toys, 3 children, 2 each. V→Child1, U→Child3: Child1 has V+1 more, Child3 has U+1 more, Child2 gets 2 from {W,X,Y,Z}. W→Child2. Then Child2 has W+1 from {X,Y,Z}. Y and Z same child. X not Child2. Y and Z: if both go to Child1: Child1 has V,Y,Z—too many. If both go to Child2: Child2 has W,Y,Z—too many. If both go to Child3: Child3 has U,Y,Z—too many. Y and Z same child is impossible given the constraint that each child gets exactly 2 and all of V,W,U are already distributed one-per-child. This problem has a fundamental constraint conflict. The intended answer may be X→Child3, which follows from X not going to Child2 (given W=Child2) and Child1 already having V+(one of Y/Z). Most logical answer: X→Child3.

Question 76: A passage states that researchers found no statistically significant link between sugar consumption and hyperactivity in children across 23 studies. What is the most defensible inference?

Parents who believe sugar causes hyperactivity are lying
The evidence strongly challenges the popular belief that sugar causes hyperactivity (Correct answer)
Sugar has no effect whatsoever on children's behavior
More research is needed before any conclusions can be drawn

Correct answer: The evidence strongly challenges the popular belief that sugar causes hyperactivity

The consistent null findings across 23 studies provide strong evidence against the sugar-hyperactivity link, though not absolute proof.

Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

The LSAT is a standardized test administered to prospective law school candidates to assess skills essential for success in law school, including reading comprehension, analytical reasoning, and logical reasoning.

Questions

140 min

Time Limit

50%

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