LAPD Multiple Choice Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Read the following sentence and identify which word is spelled incorrectly: 'The liutenant assigned the new recruit to traffic control duty during the parade.'

liutenant (Correct answer)
parade
assigned
recruit

Correct answer: liutenant

The word 'liutenant' is misspelled. The correct spelling for the police rank is 'lieutenant'.

Question 2: A robbery victim states: 'He grabbed my purse and ran. I'm pretty sure he had a gun — I saw something in his waistband.' How should this statement be classified?

Unconfirmed: the victim believes the suspect may have been armed (Correct answer)
Confirmed fact: the suspect was armed
Hearsay: the victim is speculating
Irrelevant: the victim cannot confirm a weapon was used

Correct answer: Unconfirmed: the victim believes the suspect may have been armed

The victim expresses belief based on what she saw but did not confirm a firearm, making it an unconfirmed observation.

Question 3: A policy reads: 'Officers are prohibited from conducting searches of digital devices, including cell phones, without a warrant, except when the device owner gives voluntary, knowing, and uncoerced consent.' A suspect says 'Fine, check it' after being told they do not have to allow a search. Is this valid consent?

Yes, because the suspect gave verbal consent and was informed they could refuse (Correct answer)
Yes, but only if a supervisor also approves the search
No, because the officer must still obtain a warrant
No, because all phone searches require a warrant regardless of consent

Correct answer: Yes, because the suspect gave verbal consent and was informed they could refuse

The suspect was informed they could refuse and still consented verbally, satisfying the voluntary, knowing, and uncoerced consent standard.

Question 4: An incident report states: 'The victim indicated she did not wish to pursue charges at this time.' What does the phrase 'at this time' imply?

Officers are prohibited from gathering further evidence
The victim may reconsider her decision in the future (Correct answer)
The case is permanently closed
The suspect cannot be charged under any circumstances

Correct answer: The victim may reconsider her decision in the future

'At this time' implies the victim's decision is current but may change, so the case should not be permanently closed.

Question 5: A police bulletin reads: 'Be advised that the suspect is described as a male, approximately 6'2", 220 lbs, with a tattoo of an eagle on his left forearm. The suspect is considered armed and dangerous.' Which detail is NOT mentioned in the bulletin?

The location of the suspect's tattoo
The suspect's hair color (Correct answer)
The suspect's height
The suspect's weight

Correct answer: The suspect's hair color

The bulletin describes height, weight, and tattoo location, but does not mention hair color.

Question 6: Officer Lee is told: 'If you are not at the station by 0600, you will miss the briefing.' Officer Lee arrives at 0550. What follows?

The briefing has already ended
Officer Lee misses the briefing
Officer Lee does not miss the briefing (Correct answer)
Officer Lee's arrival time is irrelevant

Correct answer: Officer Lee does not miss the briefing

Lee arrived before 0600, so the condition for missing the briefing was not met.

Question 7: Which of the following words is defined as 'a crime, typically one involving violence, regarded as more serious than a misdemeanor, and usually punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or by death'?

Felony (Correct answer)
Arraignment
Infraction
Affidavit

Correct answer: Felony

A 'Felony' is a serious crime that carries a significant penalty. An 'Arraignment' is a court proceeding, an 'Affidavit' is a written statement under oath, and an 'Infraction' is a minor violation.

Question 8: A court subpoena states: 'You are commanded to appear at the above-referenced court on the date and time specified to provide testimony regarding your personal knowledge of the incident described herein. Failure to comply may result in contempt of court.' What is the main purpose of this document?

To legally require the recipient to testify in court (Correct answer)
To request a voluntary statement from the recipient
To inform the recipient of a pending lawsuit against them
To notify the recipient of their right to remain silent

Correct answer: To legally require the recipient to testify in court

A subpoena legally compels an individual to appear and testify, as stated in the document.

Question 9: Under the public safety exception established in New York v. Quarles, officers may:

Continue questioning after a suspect invokes their right to silence
Ask questions necessary to address an immediate public safety threat without Miranda (Correct answer)
Re-administer Miranda after every hour of questioning
Skip Miranda for all violent felony investigations

Correct answer: Ask questions necessary to address an immediate public safety threat without Miranda

The public safety exception permits officers to ask questions about an immediate danger before administering Miranda warnings.

Question 10: An officer describes a witness as 'corroborating' a statement. This means the witness is:

disputing the evidence
refusing to testify
contradicting the account
confirming or supporting the account (Correct answer)

Correct answer: confirming or supporting the account

To corroborate means to confirm or give support to a statement, theory, or finding.

Question 11: What does 'plain view doctrine' allow an officer to do?

Detain any person visible on a public street
Search a residence when the door is open
Seize evidence or contraband that is clearly visible without a warrant (Correct answer)
Conduct a search of a vehicle without a warrant

Correct answer: Seize evidence or contraband that is clearly visible without a warrant

The plain view doctrine allows officers to seize evidence they can clearly see without conducting a search, as long as they are lawfully present.

Question 12: An LAPD officer's report uses the word 'perpetuate.' In this context, perpetuate most likely means:

to document an event for official records
to hand over custody to another agency
to cause something to continue indefinitely (Correct answer)
to bring an act to an immediate end

Correct answer: to cause something to continue indefinitely

Perpetuate means to make something continue indefinitely; it is distinct from 'perpetrate' (to commit a crime).

Question 13: An officer is writing a report about a suspect who was uncooperative and hostile. Which of the following words is the correct spelling for this behavior?

Belligerant
Belligerent (Correct answer)
Beligerent
Belegerent

Correct answer: Belligerent

The correct spelling is 'Belligerent,' which means hostile and aggressive. This is a common word in police reports and is frequently misspelled.

Question 14: Select the correctly spelled word for a sworn statement made under oath outside of court:

afidavitt
afidavit
affidavit (Correct answer)
affidavitt

Correct answer: affidavit

Affidavit is spelled with double 'f': a-f-f-i-d-a-v-i-t.

Question 15: In law enforcement, what is the solemn meaning of the term "End of Watch" (EOW)?

The death of an officer in the line of duty. (Correct answer)
The official time a patrol shift concludes for the day.
A mandatory period of leave following a critical incident.
The conclusion of an officer's final shift before retirement.

Correct answer: The death of an officer in the line of duty.

"End of Watch" (EOW) is a revered term used to signify that an officer has died in the line of duty, marking the final end to their service. It is a declaration of honor and remembrance for their ultimate sacrifice.

Question 16: If 3 officers can patrol a 12-block area in 2 hours, how long would it take 6 officers to patrol the same area?

45 minutes
1.5 hours
1 hour (Correct answer)
30 minutes

Correct answer: 1 hour

Doubling the officers halves the time: 2 hours ÷ 2 = 1 hour.

Question 17: What physical attribute does the sit-and-reach event in the LAPD PFQ assess?

Lower back and hamstring flexibility (Correct answer)
Core muscular strength
Hip flexor explosive power
Abdominal muscular endurance

Correct answer: Lower back and hamstring flexibility

The sit-and-reach test measures lower back and hamstring flexibility, which is important for injury prevention in police work.

Question 18: A general order states: 'Officers who are involved in any traffic collision while on duty, regardless of fault, must notify their supervisor immediately and complete a Department Vehicle Collision Report prior to the end of their shift.' An officer is rear-ended at a red light while on patrol. What must the officer do?

Notify dispatch and wait for further instructions from the Watch Commander
File a report only if the officer was at fault
Notify their supervisor and complete a collision report before shift ends (Correct answer)
File a report only if injuries occurred

Correct answer: Notify their supervisor and complete a collision report before shift ends

The order requires notification to the supervisor and a report regardless of fault or injury.

Question 19: During a LAPD background polygraph examination, an applicant is asked about prior drug use and gives inconsistent answers. What is the most likely outcome?

The inconsistencies are automatically attributed to polygraph measurement error
The applicant is given one additional opportunity to retake the exam immediately
The polygraph results alone cannot be used to disqualify an applicant
The inconsistencies are flagged for follow-up questioning and may lead to disqualification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The inconsistencies are flagged for follow-up questioning and may lead to disqualification

Inconsistencies detected during a polygraph trigger follow-up investigation; dishonesty about drug use is treated extremely seriously and often leads to disqualification for both the drug use and the lack of candor.

Question 20: What is 'arraignment' in the criminal justice process?

The final review before a case is dismissed
The sentencing phase after a guilty verdict
The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea (Correct answer)
A hearing to determine bail eligibility

Correct answer: The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea

Arraignment is the court proceeding where a defendant is formally read their charges and asked to enter a plea of guilty, not guilty, or no contest.

Question 21: During the 1-minute sit-up event, a candidate performs 40 repetitions. For all repetitions, they successfully touch their elbows to their knees and their shoulder blades to the floor. However, for the first 20 repetitions their fingers are interlocked behind their head, and for the last 20 their arms are crossed over their chest. What is the candidate's most likely official score?

20, because the form was not consistent throughout the event.
40, because both techniques are acceptable variations.
0, because crossing arms over the chest is an invalid technique. (Correct answer)
30, because a 10-repetition penalty is assessed for changing form.

Correct answer: 0, because crossing arms over the chest is an invalid technique.

According to LAPD PFQ demonstration videos, the only two acceptable hand positions for the sit-up are fingers interlocked behind the head or arms crossed over the chest with hands on opposite shoulders. However, a different source for police testing states fingers must be interlaced behind the head. Given the official LAPD video shows a specific technique (arms crossed), any deviation, including the 'fingers interlaced' method common in other tests, would likely invalidate those repetitions. The valid technique requires arms to be crossed over the chest.

Question 22: The following passage appears in an LAPD training manual: 'De-escalation techniques should be employed whenever tactically feasible before resorting to force. Feasibility is determined by the totality of circumstances present at the scene.' What does 'totality of circumstances' most likely mean?

The total duration of the encounter
All relevant factors of the situation considered together (Correct answer)
The legal statutes applicable to the incident
The total number of officers on scene

Correct answer: All relevant factors of the situation considered together

'Totality of circumstances' refers to evaluating all relevant factors of a situation collectively rather than in isolation.

Question 23: "Chain of custody" for recorded interview evidence refers to:

Documentation tracking who handled the evidence, when, and under what conditions (Correct answer)
The sequential list of questions asked during the interview
The command hierarchy that authorized the interrogation
The order in which multiple suspects were interviewed

Correct answer: Documentation tracking who handled the evidence, when, and under what conditions

Chain of custody documents every transfer and handling of evidence from collection through court presentation to demonstrate its integrity.

Question 24: The term 'chain of custody' refers to which of the following?

The hierarchy of command within a police department
The assignment of officers to patrol zones
The process of arresting multiple suspects
The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court

Chain of custody is the chronological documentation showing how evidence was collected, handled, and preserved.

Question 25: While on patrol, you are dispatched to a scene. The report states the suspect is the alleged ________ of the crime. Which word correctly identifies the person believed to have committed the offense?

Coroner
Plaintiff
Perpetrator (Correct answer)
Deterrent

Correct answer: Perpetrator

A 'perpetrator' is a person who carries out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act. The other options are incorrect: a plaintiff is a person who brings a case against another in a court, a coroner is an official who investigates violent or sudden deaths, and a deterrent is something that discourages someone from doing something.

Question 26: Read this passage: 'An officer may conduct a pat-down search for weapons when the officer has reasonable, articulable suspicion that the individual is armed and dangerous.' Which situation MOST justifies a pat-down under this standard?

The subject is nervous when approached by the officer
The subject is wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaches toward their waistband during questioning (Correct answer)
The subject is standing in a high-crime area
The officer recognizes the subject from a previous arrest ten years ago

Correct answer: The subject is wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaches toward their waistband during questioning

Wearing a heavy coat in warm weather and repeatedly reaching toward the waistband provides articulable, specific indicators of possible weapon concealment.

Question 27: Choose the correctly spelled word for the process of questioning a witness already examined by the opposing side:

cross-examanation
cross-examinasion
cross-examintion
cross-examination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: cross-examination

Cross-examination is spelled c-r-o-s-s-e-x-a-m-i-n-a-t-i-o-n, with 'a' before 't-i-o-n.'

Question 28: Read the following policy excerpt: 'Officers shall not release the name of a victim of a sexual assault to the media or public without the expressed written consent of the victim.' An officer is asked by a reporter for the victim's name in a sexual assault case. The officer should:

Provide the name only if the case is closed
Decline to release the name without the victim's written consent (Correct answer)
Release the name only if the victim was not injured
Refer the reporter to the Watch Commander, who can release the name

Correct answer: Decline to release the name without the victim's written consent

Policy requires expressed written consent from the victim before releasing their name in sexual assault cases.

Question 29: Per Edwards v. Arizona, once a suspect requests counsel, questioning must:

Stop immediately and not resume unless the suspect reinitiates contact (Correct answer)
Continue until the attorney physically arrives at the station
Continue only if a supervisor provides written approval
Pause for 30 minutes before officers may resume

Correct answer: Stop immediately and not resume unless the suspect reinitiates contact

Edwards v. Arizona requires all interrogation to cease once counsel is requested; it may not resume unless the suspect voluntarily reinitiates communication.

Question 30: Read the following: 'Officers must complete Form 15-A within 24 hours of any use-of-force incident. Supervisors must review and sign the form within 48 hours of submission.' If an officer uses force at 6:00 PM on Monday, by when must the supervisor sign the form?

Thursday at 6:00 PM
Tuesday at 6:00 PM
Wednesday at 6:00 PM (Correct answer)
Wednesday at 6:00 AM

Correct answer: Wednesday at 6:00 PM

The officer must submit by Tuesday 6:00 PM, and the supervisor has 48 hours from submission, making the deadline Wednesday at 6:00 PM.

Question 31: What is an 'APB' in law enforcement?

Active Patrol Beat
Annual Police Budget
All Points Bulletin — a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle (Correct answer)
Arrest Probable Basis

Correct answer: All Points Bulletin — a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle

An All Points Bulletin is a broadcast to all law enforcement units describing a wanted suspect or vehicle.

Question 32: Which word is spelled correctly?

harasment
harrassment
harassment (Correct answer)
harrasment

Correct answer: harassment

Harassment has one 'r' and two 's' letters: h-a-r-a-s-s-m-e-n-t.

Question 33: Which word correctly fills the blank? 'The officer ___ the suspect of his rights before the interview.'

apprized
aprised
apprised (Correct answer)
appraised

Correct answer: apprised

Apprised (a-p-p-r-i-s-e-d) means informed or notified; 'appraised' means assessed for value, which is a different word.

Question 34: A report describes a witness as 'recanting' their earlier statement. Recant means:

repeating a statement for emphasis
translating a statement for the record
withdrawing or taking back a previous statement (Correct answer)
confirming a statement in writing

Correct answer: withdrawing or taking back a previous statement

To recant means to formally withdraw or renounce a previous statement or belief.

Question 35: A police report states the suspect was 'belligerent.' What does this mean?

silent and unresponsive
aggressively hostile or combative (Correct answer)
intoxicated beyond control
cooperative and calm

Correct answer: aggressively hostile or combative

Belligerent describes someone who is aggressively hostile, quarrelsome, or inclined to start fights.

Question 36: An officer's handwritten notes taken during an interview:

Are inadmissible since only audio or video recordings are accepted by courts
Are the officer's personal property and not subject to legal disclosure
Must be destroyed after the official report is completed
May be requested by the defense through discovery and must be complete and accurate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: May be requested by the defense through discovery and must be complete and accurate

Interview notes are potentially discoverable by the defense and must be accurate, complete, and retained in accordance with department policy.

Question 37: The following notice is posted: 'All personnel requesting overtime must submit requests no later than 72 hours before the scheduled shift. Requests submitted after the deadline will be denied except in cases of staffing emergency declared by the Watch Commander.' An officer submits an overtime request 48 hours before the shift. What will likely happen?

The request will be denied unless a Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency (Correct answer)
The officer must resubmit with a supervisor signature
The Watch Commander must approve all late requests
The request will be approved automatically

Correct answer: The request will be denied unless a Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency

The request was submitted late, so it will be denied unless the Watch Commander declares a staffing emergency.

Question 38: The phrase 'Miranda admonishment' refers to:

the warning of rights given to a suspect before questioning (Correct answer)
a written summons to appear in court
a formal apology by law enforcement
a court order restricting police conduct

Correct answer: the warning of rights given to a suspect before questioning

The Miranda admonishment (or warning) informs suspects of their rights, including the right to remain silent and to an attorney.

Question 39: An officer's report reads: 'The witness' account contradicted the defendant's statement.' Is the apostrophe in 'witness'' correct?

No, it should be 'witness's' — there is only one witness
No, it should be 'witnesses'' to indicate multiple witnesses
Yes, apostrophes are never added after 's'
Yes, for a singular noun ending in 's,' adding only an apostrophe is acceptable style (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yes, for a singular noun ending in 's,' adding only an apostrophe is acceptable style

For singular nouns ending in 's,' both 'witness'' and 'witness's' are accepted; LAPD style typically accepts 'witness'' as the possessive.

Question 40: Which spelling is correct for the legal term meaning a court order requiring someone to appear?

subpeona
subpoenia
subpoeana
subpoena (Correct answer)

Correct answer: subpoena

Subpoena is spelled s-u-b-p-o-e-n-a, a Latin-origin word meaning 'under penalty.'

Question 41: Select the correctly spelled term for the removal of a person from one state to another to face criminal charges:

extradission
extradision
extradition (Correct answer)
exstradition

Correct answer: extradition

Extradition is spelled e-x-t-r-a-d-i-t-i-o-n, meaning the formal surrender of a fugitive to another jurisdiction.

Question 42: In police operations, what is a 'tactical pause'?

A mandatory rest period required by department policy
A break in radio communications during sensitive operations
A scheduled stop in a pursuit for safety evaluation
A deliberate delay in action to assess the situation and de-escalate before using force (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A deliberate delay in action to assess the situation and de-escalate before using force

A tactical pause is an intentional moment where officers hold their position to gather information, de-escalate, and plan the safest course of action.

Question 43: A series of thefts occurred on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. A theft is reported on Sunday. Which statement best applies logical analysis?

The thief changed their schedule deliberately
Sunday's theft may or may not be related — additional evidence is needed (Correct answer)
Sunday's theft proves the pattern was wrong
Sunday's theft is unrelated because it breaks the pattern

Correct answer: Sunday's theft may or may not be related — additional evidence is needed

A pattern deviation alone is insufficient to confirm or deny connection without further evidence.

Question 44: Read the following excerpt from an incident report: 'Upon arrival at the scene of the traffic collision, I observed two vehicles: a blue sedan with major front-end damage and a white SUV with significant rear-end damage. The driver of the sedan, John Doe, stated that the SUV stopped abruptly in front of him. The driver of the SUV, Jane Smith, claimed Mr. Doe was following too closely. Both parties declined medical attention.' Based on the report, which of the following can be concluded as a fact?

The driver of the SUV caused the collision.
The driver of the sedan was following too closely.
The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV. (Correct answer)
Both drivers will be issued citations for the accident.

Correct answer: The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV.

The report factually describes the officer's observation of a 'blue sedan' and a 'white SUV' at the scene. The statements from the drivers are presented as claims, not established facts, and there is no mention of citations being issued.

Question 45: What does 'PC' stand for in LAPD police reports and daily communications?

Primary Contact
Penal Code (Correct answer)
Police Commander
Patrol Car

Correct answer: Penal Code

PC stands for Penal Code, the California statute under which a crime or violation is charged.

Question 46: What is a 'crime scene log' used for?

Tracking officer patrol hours
Recording all persons who enter and exit a secured crime scene (Correct answer)
Documenting radio communications during an incident
Listing the evidence collected from a scene

Correct answer: Recording all persons who enter and exit a secured crime scene

A crime scene log records the identity and time of entry/exit for everyone accessing a crime scene to protect evidence integrity.

Question 47: An LAPD officer observes an individual in a high-crime area late at night, peering into parked car windows and trying door handles. This observation gives the officer grounds to detain and question the individual. What level of proof has the officer's observation established?

Probable Cause
Conclusive Evidence
A Mere Hunch
Reasonable Suspicion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reasonable Suspicion

The officer has specific and articulable facts that suggest criminal activity may be occurring. This is the definition of Reasonable Suspicion, which is the legal standard required for an officer to conduct a temporary investigative stop (a "Terry stop"). It is a lower standard than Probable Cause, which is required for an arrest.

Question 48: The crime of speaking an untruth or making a false statement under oath.

Libel
Testimony
Perjury (Correct answer)
Collusion

Correct answer: Perjury

Perjury is the crime of speaking an untruth or making a false statement under oath, whether in court or in a sworn affidavit. It is a serious criminal offense because it undermines the integrity of legal proceedings and the justice system, as it involves intentionally misleading authorities or a court.

Question 49: Which spelling is correct for a person who gives false testimony under oath?

purjurer
perjerer
perjuror
perjurer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: perjurer

Perjurer is spelled p-e-r-j-u-r-e-r, derived from 'perjury,' the crime of lying under oath.

Question 50: What does 'perimeter' mean in an active police operation?

A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard (Correct answer)
The paperwork filed after an incident
The area inside a police station
A list of witnesses at a crime scene

Correct answer: A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard

A perimeter is a controlled boundary set up around an incident to secure the area and prevent a suspect from escaping.

Question 51: What does 'NCIC' stand for and what is its purpose?

National Crime Information Center — a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records (Correct answer)
National Communications Integration Center — manages radio frequencies
National Criminal Intelligence Center — stores arrest records only
National Command and Incident Center — coordinates SWAT responses

Correct answer: National Crime Information Center — a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records

NCIC is the FBI's National Crime Information Center, a nationwide database officers use to check for warrants, stolen vehicles, and criminal histories.

Question 52: In law enforcement, what is a 'BOLO'?

Basic Officer Level Order
Booking of Listed Offenders
Bureau of Legal Operations
Be On the LookOut — an alert issued to officers to watch for a specific person, vehicle, or item (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Be On the LookOut — an alert issued to officers to watch for a specific person, vehicle, or item

BOLO stands for 'Be On the LookOut' and alerts officers to watch for a specific suspect, vehicle, or stolen item.

Question 53: In police reports, what does 'R/O' typically stand for?

Reporting Officer (Correct answer)
Record of Operations
Responding Officer
Release Order

Correct answer: Reporting Officer

R/O stands for Reporting Officer, the officer who documents and writes the official incident or crime report.

Question 54: Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?

Recurrance (Correct answer)
Prevalent
Misdemeanor
Surveillance

Correct answer: Recurrance

The correct spelling is 'Recurrence'. The other words, 'Misdemeanor', 'Prevalent', and 'Surveillance', are all spelled correctly and are common in law enforcement vocabulary.

Question 55: All detectives in the Robbery-Homicide Division (RHD) are required to have at least five years of patrol experience. Detective Jones is assigned to the RHD. Therefore, it can be logically deduced that:

Detective Jones has worked in the RHD for five years.
Only RHD detectives are required to have patrol experience.
Detective Jones has at least five years of patrol experience. (Correct answer)
All detectives with five years of patrol experience are in the RHD.

Correct answer: Detective Jones has at least five years of patrol experience.

This is a classic example of deductive reasoning (a syllogism). The premise is that a specific qualification (at least five years of patrol experience) is required for a specific group (RHD detectives). Since Detective Jones is a member of that group, he must possess that qualification. The other options reverse the logic or make unsubstantiated claims.

Question 56: Which spelling is correct for a formal charge of a serious crime?

indicment
indictment (Correct answer)
inditement
indightment

Correct answer: indictment

Indictment is spelled i-n-d-i-c-t-m-e-n-t; the 'c' is silent, making it sound like 'in-DITE-ment.'

Question 57: What is a 'Field Interview' (FI) in police terminology?

A brief investigative stop where an officer questions a suspicious person (Correct answer)
An interrogation of a crime suspect
A witness interview conducted at the station
A formal arrest procedure

Correct answer: A brief investigative stop where an officer questions a suspicious person

A Field Interview is a brief, non-custodial contact where an officer questions someone under suspicious circumstances.

Question 58: A community bulletin reads: 'The LAPD's Neighborhood Watch program is a partnership between the police and the community to reduce crime. Residents are encouraged to be vigilant and report suspicious activities to their block captain or directly to the police. The program's effectiveness relies on active participation and open communication.' What is the main idea of this passage?

The Neighborhood Watch program is a mandatory activity for all residents.
Crime reduction is a collaborative effort between the police and residents. (Correct answer)
Block captains have the authority to make arrests.
Police officers are solely responsible for reducing crime.

Correct answer: Crime reduction is a collaborative effort between the police and residents.

The passage defines the program as a 'partnership' and emphasizes that its effectiveness 'relies on active participation' from residents, highlighting the collaborative nature of the effort.

Question 59: The following is from a police manual: 'Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation of the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence.' Why is chain of custody important?

It sets deadlines for evidence disposal
It ensures evidence integrity and admissibility in court (Correct answer)
It allows officers to handle evidence without logging it
It limits which officers can be assigned to a case

Correct answer: It ensures evidence integrity and admissibility in court

Maintaining chain of custody protects evidence integrity and ensures it can be admitted in court without challenge.

Question 60: What is 'modus operandi' (MO) in criminal investigation?

The official classification code for a crime
A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes (Correct answer)
The legal motive behind a crime
The timeline of events during an incident

Correct answer: A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes

Modus operandi refers to a criminal's distinctive pattern or method of operation, used to link crimes or identify suspects.

Question 61: What is a 'search incident to lawful arrest'?

A warrantless search of an arrestee and the area within their immediate control at the time of arrest (Correct answer)
A warrant required before searching an arrested person
A search authorized only by a supervising officer
A search conducted at the police station after booking

Correct answer: A warrantless search of an arrestee and the area within their immediate control at the time of arrest

Search incident to lawful arrest allows officers to search an arrested person and the area within their immediate reach without a warrant.

Question 62: A witness statement reads: 'I heard a loud bang, then saw two men run from the store. One wore a red jacket, the other wore a blue hoodie. They got into a white car that drove away quickly.' What is the primary purpose of this statement?

To provide a timeline of events following the bang (Correct answer)
To explain why the men were running
To identify the license plate of the getaway car
To describe the store layout

Correct answer: To provide a timeline of events following the bang

The statement primarily provides a sequence of observed events following the loud bang.

Question 63: In LAPD radio communications, what does the term "Code 4" signify?

An officer requires immediate, urgent assistance.
No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure. (Correct answer)
A vehicle has been reported stolen.
A supervisor is requested to respond to the location.

Correct answer: No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure.

"Code 4" is a standard and crucial radio code used by LAPD officers to indicate that a situation is under control and no more responding units are necessary. This prevents unnecessary responses and frees up resources for other calls.

Question 64: Why do LAPD PFQ standards for the 1.5-mile run differ between younger and older age groups?

LAPD only administers the 1.5-mile run to candidates under 30
Younger candidates receive extra time for being enrolled in school
Cardiovascular capacity naturally declines with age, so norms are adjusted accordingly (Correct answer)
Older candidates are tested on a shorter, easier course

Correct answer: Cardiovascular capacity naturally declines with age, so norms are adjusted accordingly

Age-normed standards recognize that aerobic capacity typically decreases with age, allowing fair assessment of relative fitness within each cohort.

Question 65: What is 'vicarious liability' in the context of law enforcement agencies?

Liability arising from failure to respond to a call
A charge filed against an officer for excessive force
Personal liability an officer faces for off-duty misconduct
Legal responsibility an agency may bear for the actions of its officers acting within the scope of employment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Legal responsibility an agency may bear for the actions of its officers acting within the scope of employment

Vicarious liability holds an employer, such as LAPD, potentially responsible for unlawful acts committed by employees during their official duties.

Question 66: How far in advance should a candidate begin structured training to prepare for the LAPD PFQ?

One to two weeks before the test date
At least three to six months before testing (Correct answer)
The day after submitting the application
Only after receiving a formal test date notification

Correct answer: At least three to six months before testing

A minimum of three to six months allows enough time to build fitness progressively and safely without risking overtraining or injury.

Question 67: A use-of-force policy states: 'Officers shall use only the force that is objectively reasonable, necessary, and proportional to the threat or resistance presented.' An officer applies a firm grip to guide a cooperative, non-resistant individual. Which term from the policy BEST justifies this action?

All of the above, as all three criteria are met
Proportional — the level of force matches the level of compliance (Correct answer)
Necessary — the officer had no choice
Objectively reasonable — any officer would do the same

Correct answer: Proportional — the level of force matches the level of compliance

Proportionality is most directly addressed — a minimal amount of force was used for a cooperative subject, matching the level of compliance.

Question 68: While on patrol, you observe a vehicle parked illegally. Which detail is MOST important to record for accurate recall later?

License plate number, make, model, color, and any distinguishing features (Correct answer)
Whether the windows were tinted
The vehicle's color only
The approximate age of any occupants

Correct answer: License plate number, make, model, color, and any distinguishing features

Comprehensive vehicle identification details — plate, make, model, color, and unique features — are essential for accurate reporting and follow-up.

Question 69: Department Policy 420.1 states: 'Officers shall activate their Body Worn Video (BWV) camera prior to initiating any investigative or enforcement action involving a member of the public. If the camera is not activated, the officer must document the reason in their official report.' An officer conducts a traffic stop but only activates their BWV after they have already asked the driver for their license and registration. According to Policy 420.1, what must the officer do?

Inform their supervisor immediately via radio.
Document the reason for the delayed activation in their report. (Correct answer)
Delete the recording as it is incomplete.
Obtain a written apology from the driver.

Correct answer: Document the reason for the delayed activation in their report.

The policy explicitly states that if the camera is not activated according to procedure, the officer 'must document the reason in their official report.' The other options are not mentioned in the provided text.

Question 70: A robbery victim describes the suspect as wearing a 'blue hoodie.' As the responding officer, what follow-up question is MOST important?

'What shade of blue — light, dark, or navy — and did it have any logos or writing?' (Correct answer)
'Was the hoodie new or old-looking?'
'Was it a zip-up or pullover style?'
'Did the suspect have the hood up or down?'

Correct answer: 'What shade of blue — light, dark, or navy — and did it have any logos or writing?'

Clarifying the exact shade and any identifying markings like logos narrows the search significantly and aids other officers in identification.

Question 71: What does 'booking' refer to in the arrest process?

Transferring a suspect between facilities
Requesting a warrant from a judge
Writing the initial incident report
The administrative process of recording an arrest and entering the suspect into the system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The administrative process of recording an arrest and entering the suspect into the system

Booking is the administrative procedure that officially records a suspect's arrest, including fingerprinting and photographing.

Question 72: In a use-of-force report, 'proportional' response means:

force exceeding the threat level to ensure control
force determined by department policy alone
using lethal means as a first resort
force matching the level of threat presented (Correct answer)

Correct answer: force matching the level of threat presented

A proportional response uses force equivalent in degree to the threat, neither excessive nor insufficient.

Question 73: Which punctuation mark is used to introduce a list in a formal report?

Comma
Dash
Semicolon
Colon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Colon

A colon is the correct punctuation to introduce a list or to signal that elaboration follows a complete statement.

Question 74: In LAPD radio communications, what does the term 'Code 4' signify?

No further assistance needed, situation under control (Correct answer)
Officer needs assistance immediately
Suspect is in custody
Officer is responding to a call

Correct answer: No further assistance needed, situation under control

Code 4 means the situation is under control and no further assistance is required.

Question 75: An LAPD training bulletin states: 'Confirmation bias occurs when an investigator focuses on evidence that supports an initial theory while discounting contradictory evidence.' Which investigative behavior BEST demonstrates confirmation bias?

Documenting all evidence, both inculpatory and exculpatory
Focusing exclusively on one suspect's background after initially suspecting them, while ignoring evidence pointing to others (Correct answer)
Interviewing multiple witnesses before drawing conclusions
Arresting a suspect only after reviewing all available evidence

Correct answer: Focusing exclusively on one suspect's background after initially suspecting them, while ignoring evidence pointing to others

Focusing only on one suspect and ignoring contradictory evidence is the definition of confirmation bias as stated in the bulletin.

Question 76: Which spelling is correct for a false statement that damages someone's reputation?

defamtion
defamation (Correct answer)
defimation
deffamation

Correct answer: defamation

Defamation is spelled d-e-f-a-m-a-t-i-o-n, meaning the act of damaging someone's good reputation.

Question 77: When a non-English speaking suspect is in custody, the officer must:

Summon an informal interpreter from bilingual officers on the shift
Use visual aids and gestures as a practical substitute for an interpreter
Proceed with questioning and document the language barrier in the report
Administer Miranda rights in the suspect's language using a qualified interpreter (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administer Miranda rights in the suspect's language using a qualified interpreter

Constitutional requirements mandate that Miranda rights be administered in a language the suspect understands, using a qualified interpreter — not informal staff.

Question 78: A department memo states: 'Effective immediately, patrol officers are prohibited from conducting solo interviews of juvenile suspects without a supervisor present, unless exigent circumstances exist.' What does the word 'exigent' most likely mean in this context?

Urgent or requiring immediate action (Correct answer)
Requiring written approval
Routine
Scheduled in advance

Correct answer: Urgent or requiring immediate action

'Exigent circumstances' in law enforcement refers to urgent situations that require immediate action.

Question 79: An off-duty LAPD officer, while shopping in plain clothes at a grocery store, witnesses an individual shoplift a low-value item and walk towards the exit. The officer is armed. What is the most prudent initial action for the officer to take?

Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and immediately notify on-duty police and store security. (Correct answer)
Immediately draw their weapon and command the suspect to stop.
Ignore the incident, as they are off-duty and the crime is minor.
Attempt to physically detain the suspect themselves before they can leave the store.

Correct answer: Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and immediately notify on-duty police and store security.

While peace officers have authority off-duty, departmental guidance and best practices emphasize that appropriate action depends on the circumstances and may simply require being an effective witness. For a minor property crime with no immediate threat to life, intervening physically while off-duty creates unnecessary risks for the officer, the suspect, and the public. The safest and most effective action is to observe and report to on-duty units who are equipped to handle the situation.

Question 80: A memorandum reads: 'All officers assigned to Foot Beat 12 are reminded that vendor permit compliance is within their enforcement authority. Officers should issue warnings for first-time violations before citing, unless the violation poses an immediate public safety hazard.' An officer encounters a vendor without a permit who is blocking a fire hydrant. What should the officer do?

Issue a warning because it is the vendor's first violation
Issue a citation because the violation poses a public safety hazard (Correct answer)
Refer the matter to a supervisor only
Take no action as it is a first-time violation

Correct answer: Issue a citation because the violation poses a public safety hazard

Blocking a fire hydrant is an immediate public safety hazard, which is the exception that allows the officer to skip the warning and issue a citation.

LAPD Multiple Choice Test

The LAPD written entrance exam evaluates reading comprehension and English usage through four equally weighted sections: spelling, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing clarity.

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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