CompTIA Tech+ (FC0-U71) IT Fundamentals Certification — Questions and Answers

Question 1: How should old hard drives containing sensitive data be handled before disposal to meet compliance requirements?

Delete the files and empty the Recycle Bin
Securely wipe, degauss, or physically destroy them and obtain a certificate of destruction (Correct answer)
Quick format them
Remove only the partition table

Correct answer: Securely wipe, degauss, or physically destroy them and obtain a certificate of destruction

Secure wiping or physical destruction with documented certification prevents data recovery.

Question 2: Which data type is used to store whole numbers in programming?

String
Float
Integer (Correct answer)
Boolean

Correct answer: Integer

In programming, the `Integer` data type is specifically used to store whole numbers, which are numbers without any fractional or decimal components. Examples include -10, 0, and 1000. Other data types like `Float` store decimal numbers, `String` stores text, and `Boolean` stores true/false values.

Question 3: Which scan type uses valid login credentials to give a more accurate picture of a host's vulnerabilities?

Credentialed scan (Correct answer)
Banner grab
Non-credentialed scan
Ping sweep

Correct answer: Credentialed scan

Credentialed scans log in to the host, so they can check installed software and configurations in depth.

Question 4: Which cloud storage concept ensures that data is automatically replicated across multiple geographic locations to prevent data loss?

Geo-redundancy (Correct answer)
Object versioning
Cold storage tiering
Data deduplication

Correct answer: Geo-redundancy

Geo-redundancy replicates data across multiple geographic regions so that if one data center fails, the data remains accessible from another location.

Question 5: A company retains customer data indefinitely 'just in case,' even though policy says to delete it after three years. What is the main risk?

Faster database performance
Lower storage costs
Increased legal liability and exposure if the data is breached (Correct answer)
Improved customer trust

Correct answer: Increased legal liability and exposure if the data is breached

Keeping data beyond its retention period increases breach impact and may violate legal or policy obligations.

Question 6: Which backup type copies all data changed since the last full backup and does NOT clear the archive bit?

Full
Incremental
Differential (Correct answer)
Synthetic full

Correct answer: Differential

Differential backups grow daily because they keep capturing everything changed since the last full backup.

Question 7: Which disaster recovery site offers the fastest failover because it has running hardware and near-real-time data replication?

Cold site
Warm site
Hot site (Correct answer)
Mobile site

Correct answer: Hot site

A hot site mirrors production and can take over within minutes, at the highest cost.

Question 8: What is Active Directory used for?

Organizing and securing user access (Correct answer)
Installing software
Running antivirus scans
Defragmenting hard drives

Correct answer: Organizing and securing user access

Active Directory (AD) is a directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows domain networks, primarily used for centralized management of network resources. It stores information about users, computers, and other devices, providing authentication and authorization services. This allows administrators to efficiently organize and secure user access to network resources and enforce security policies.

Question 9: A service promises 99.9% uptime per year. About how much downtime does that allow annually?

About 52 minutes
About 3.65 days
About 8.76 hours (Correct answer)
About 5 minutes

Correct answer: About 8.76 hours

0.1% of 8,760 hours is about 8.76 hours of allowed downtime per year.

Question 10: An employee leaves the company. What is the best practice for their accounts?

Delete all their data immediately without review
Share their password with their manager
Promptly disable access as part of a documented offboarding process (Correct answer)
Leave the accounts active in case they return

Correct answer: Promptly disable access as part of a documented offboarding process

Timely deprovisioning prevents former employees from retaining unauthorized access.

Question 11: What is the foundational principle of continuing education requirements in the Information Technology Certified field?

Maximizing personal advancement
Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders (Correct answer)
Following the easiest path available
Avoiding all challenging situations

Correct answer: Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders

The foundational principles of continuing education requirements in Information Technology Certified center on maintaining competence, integrity, and quality service.

Question 12: How many Cisco CE credits are needed to recertify a CCNP-level certification without exams?

30
50
80 (Correct answer)
120

Correct answer: 80

CCNP recertification via CE alone requires 80 credits.

Question 13: How should communication and documentation knowledge be maintained and updated?

Initial training provides lifelong competence
Knowledge updates are only needed every five years
Through continuous professional development, current literature review, and professional networking (Correct answer)
Learning stops after certification

Correct answer: Through continuous professional development, current literature review, and professional networking

Professional competence requires ongoing development through education, literature review, and engagement with the professional community.

Question 14: A technician needs to find which hop is dropping packets between a workstation and a remote server. Which tool is most appropriate?

ipconfig
netstat
traceroute/tracert (Correct answer)
nslookup

Correct answer: traceroute/tracert

Traceroute shows each router hop along the path and where responses stop or slow.

Question 15: A risk assessment calculates an asset value of $200,000 and an exposure factor of 25%. What is the single loss expectancy (SLE)?

$200,000
$50,000 (Correct answer)
$25,000
$100,000

Correct answer: $50,000

SLE equals asset value multiplied by exposure factor, so $200,000 x 0.25 = $50,000.

Question 16: A company requires one employee to create vendor payments and a different employee to approve them. Which principle is this?

Least privilege
Mandatory vacation
Need to know
Separation of duties (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Separation of duties

Separation of duties splits critical tasks so no single person can commit fraud alone.

Question 17: While gathering information on a problem, which action is most appropriate before making any changes?

Reinstall applications
Back up relevant data (Correct answer)
Replace suspected hardware
Update the BIOS

Correct answer: Back up relevant data

Backing up data before changes protects against data loss during troubleshooting.

Question 18: What is the foundational principle of applied methods and techniques in the Information Technology Certified field?

Avoiding all challenging situations
Maximizing personal advancement
Following the easiest path available
Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders

The foundational principles of applied methods and techniques in Information Technology Certified center on maintaining competence, integrity, and quality service.

Question 19: What is the purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?

To set backup schedules
To define server hardware specifications
To define how employees may and may not use organizational IT resources (Correct answer)
To list vendor contracts

Correct answer: To define how employees may and may not use organizational IT resources

An AUP sets rules for appropriate use of company systems, networks, and data by users.

Question 20: A company stores customer data as flexible JSON-like documents with no fixed schema. Which database type is it most likely using?

Hierarchical spreadsheet
Relational database
Flat file database
NoSQL document database (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NoSQL document database

NoSQL document databases like MongoDB store schema-less, JSON-style documents.

Question 21: While responding to a security incident, a technician removes a hard drive that may be used as evidence. What must be documented to keep the evidence admissible?

Warranty status
Chain of custody (Correct answer)
Change request number
Asset tag

Correct answer: Chain of custody

Chain of custody records every person who handled the evidence and when, preserving its integrity.

Question 22: What is phishing?

Firewall setting
Software update
Network scanning tool
Social engineering attack (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Social engineering attack

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack where attackers attempt to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information, such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details. This is typically achieved by impersonating a trustworthy entity through deceptive emails, messages, or websites that appear legitimate. Phishing exploits human psychology rather than technical vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access.

Question 23: Why is version control such as Git considered a best practice for scripts and configuration files?

It automatically encrypts all files
It removes the need for testing
It speeds up network transfers
It tracks changes, enables rollback, and shows who changed what (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It tracks changes, enables rollback, and shows who changed what

Version control provides history, accountability, and easy rollback for code and configuration changes.

Question 24: A developer copies code from a GPL-licensed project into a proprietary product that will be distributed to customers. What is the main ethical and legal concern?

There is no concern because open-source code is public domain
GPL code cannot be compiled
The GPL requires derivative works that are distributed to also be released under the GPL (Correct answer)
The GPL prohibits any commercial use

Correct answer: The GPL requires derivative works that are distributed to also be released under the GPL

The GPL's copyleft terms require distributed derivative works to carry the same license.

Question 25: Which authentication protocol uses a Key Distribution Center to issue time-stamped tickets in Windows domains?

Kerberos (Correct answer)
LDAP
RADIUS
NTLM

Correct answer: Kerberos

Kerberos uses a KDC to issue ticket-granting tickets and service tickets, and it relies on synchronized clocks.

Question 26: Before tuning a server, an administrator records normal CPU, memory, and disk usage over several weeks. What is this data called?

Capacity ceiling
Benchmark exploit
Performance baseline (Correct answer)
Stress test

Correct answer: Performance baseline

A baseline shows normal performance, so later measurements can be compared against it.

Question 27: A developer writes code that is intended to run on Windows, macOS, and Linux without being rewritten. Which language feature most helps achieve this?

Using hard-coded file paths
Compiling to one specific CPU's machine code
Running code in a virtual machine or interpreter (Correct answer)
Writing in assembly language

Correct answer: Running code in a virtual machine or interpreter

Languages like Java and Python run on a virtual machine or interpreter, making code portable across operating systems.

Question 28: What does an array allow a programmer to do?

Define a reusable block of code
Store multiple values of the same type under one name (Correct answer)
Hide internal object details
Repeat code a set number of times

Correct answer: Store multiple values of the same type under one name

An array is a data structure that holds an ordered collection of elements accessed by index.

Question 29: Which testing technique sends random or malformed input to an application to find crashes and errors in how it handles input?

Fuzzing (Correct answer)
Sandboxing
Code review
Load testing

Correct answer: Fuzzing

Fuzzing sends unexpected or random data to find flaws in input handling.

Question 30: Which database type uses tables to store data?

Graph
NoSQL
Relational (Correct answer)
Flat file

Correct answer: Relational

Relational databases are characterized by their structure, where data is organized into one or more tables (also known as relations). Each table consists of rows and columns, with relationships defined between tables using common fields. This tabular structure allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and management of structured data using SQL.

Question 31: A technician escalates a ticket to tier 2 support. What should the technician include so the next tier does not repeat work?

Only the user's name
The technician's lunch schedule
A request to close the ticket
A detailed description of the problem and all troubleshooting steps already performed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A detailed description of the problem and all troubleshooting steps already performed

Thorough escalation notes prevent duplicated effort and speed up resolution.

Question 32: Which technique automates infrastructure provisioning using machine-readable definition files?

Infrastructure as Code (Correct answer)
Port mirroring
Remote desktop administration
Manual imaging

Correct answer: Infrastructure as Code

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) defines and deploys infrastructure through versioned configuration files.

Question 33: What ethical standard governs communication and documentation practice?

Ethics are personal opinions, not professional requirements
Ethics only apply in academic settings
Adherence to the profession's code of ethics and applicable laws and regulations (Correct answer)
Ethical standards are optional for certified professionals

Correct answer: Adherence to the profession's code of ethics and applicable laws and regulations

Professional ethics codes and applicable laws provide the framework for ethical practice in every professional field.

Question 34: What quality assurance measure supports applied methods and techniques?

Quality only matters for new practitioners
Regular self-assessment, peer review, and adherence to established standards (Correct answer)
Annual review is sufficient
Quality checks are unnecessary for experienced professionals

Correct answer: Regular self-assessment, peer review, and adherence to established standards

Ongoing quality assurance through self-assessment, peer review, and standards adherence ensures continuous improvement.

Question 35: In risk management, purchasing cyber insurance is an example of which response strategy?

Risk avoidance
Risk transference (Correct answer)
Risk acceptance
Risk mitigation

Correct answer: Risk transference

Insurance shifts the financial impact of a risk to a third party.

Question 36: A company wants devices in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to communicate without adding a separate router. Which device should it use?

A hub
A Layer 3 switch (Correct answer)
A wireless access point
An unmanaged switch

Correct answer: A Layer 3 switch

A Layer 3 switch can perform inter-VLAN routing using switch virtual interfaces.

Question 37: Which document defines what employees may and may not do with company computers, networks, and internet access?

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) (Correct answer)
Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Statement of Work (SOW)

Correct answer: Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

An AUP outlines permitted and prohibited uses of organizational IT resources.

Question 38: How should a technician dispose of a swollen lithium-ion laptop battery?

Puncture it to release pressure first
Store it in a sealed metal box indefinitely
Take it to an approved battery recycling facility per local regulations (Correct answer)
Throw it in regular trash

Correct answer: Take it to an approved battery recycling facility per local regulations

Lithium-ion batteries are hazardous waste and must be recycled according to local environmental rules.

Question 39: What is the maximum power per port delivered by the original PoE standard, IEEE 802.3af?

30 W
60 W
7.5 W
15.4 W (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15.4 W

802.3af provides up to 15.4 W at the switch port, while 802.3at (PoE+) provides up to 30 W.

Question 40: WPA3-Personal replaces the WPA2 pre-shared key handshake with which method to resist offline dictionary attacks?

SAE (Correct answer)
WEP
TKIP
EAP-TLS

Correct answer: SAE

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) protects against offline password guessing even if the handshake is captured.

Question 41: Which practice involves applying changes to a test environment that mirrors production before deploying them live?

Configuration drift
Hot patching
Sandbox/staging testing (Correct answer)
Shadow IT

Correct answer: Sandbox/staging testing

Staging or sandbox testing validates changes in a production-like environment without risk to live systems.

Question 42: Which diagram type uses ovals, rectangles, and diamonds to show the step-by-step logic of a program?

Entity relationship diagram
Network topology diagram
Flowchart (Correct answer)
Gantt chart

Correct answer: Flowchart

Flowcharts use standard shapes like diamonds for decisions to map out program logic.

Question 43: A developer wants to store a value that should never change during program execution, such as the value of pi. What should be used?

Function
Array
Variable
Constant (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Constant

A constant holds a fixed value that cannot be reassigned once set.

Question 44: If the SLE of a threat is $50,000 and it is expected to occur once every four years, what is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

$12,500 (Correct answer)
$50,000
$4,000
$200,000

Correct answer: $12,500

ALE = SLE x ARO, and an ARO of 0.25 gives $50,000 x 0.25 = $12,500.

Question 45: A user reports slow application performance only between 9 and 10 a.m. daily. Which technique best isolates the cause?

Reimage the user's workstation
Replace the network switch
Disable the antivirus permanently
Compare performance baselines against data captured during that window (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compare performance baselines against data captured during that window

Comparing captured metrics to a baseline shows what deviates during the problem period.

Question 46: Which command follows the live systemd journal entries for only the nginx service?

service --status-all
systemctl enable nginx
tail /etc/nginx/nginx.conf
journalctl -u nginx -f (Correct answer)

Correct answer: journalctl -u nginx -f

journalctl -u filters by unit and -f follows new entries in real time.

Question 47: After implementing a fix for a user's issue, what should the technician do BEFORE documenting the findings?

Question the user about recent changes
Close the ticket immediately
Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures (Correct answer)
Establish a new theory of probable cause

Correct answer: Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures

Verifying full functionality ensures the fix worked and did not cause other problems, and it comes just before documentation.

Question 48: Which project management technique identifies the longest sequence of dependent tasks that determines the minimum project duration?

Critical path method (Correct answer)
Gantt charting
Earned value analysis
SWOT analysis

Correct answer: Critical path method

The critical path is the longest chain of dependent tasks; any delay on it delays the project.

Question 49: When does the Microsoft certification renewal window open?

30 days before expiration
One year before expiration
90 days before expiration
180 days before expiration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 180 days before expiration

Microsoft opens the renewal assessment window 180 days before a certification expires.

Question 50: What is the primary purpose of a database?

Store and manage data (Correct answer)
Send emails
Compile programs
Design user interfaces

Correct answer: Store and manage data

The primary purpose of a database is to efficiently store, organize, and manage large amounts of structured information. Databases allow for easy retrieval, updating, and analysis of data, supporting various applications from e-commerce to scientific research. They provide a reliable and systematic way to handle information, ensuring data integrity, consistency, and accessibility.

Question 51: A browser needs to check in real time whether a web server's certificate has been revoked. Which protocol does it use?

PKCS#12
OCSP (Correct answer)
CRL
CSR

Correct answer: OCSP

The Online Certificate Status Protocol returns the revocation status of a single certificate on demand.

Question 52: On a Debian or Ubuntu server, which log file typically records SSH login attempts and sudo usage?

/var/log/kern.log
/var/log/boot.log
/var/log/dmesg
/var/log/auth.log (Correct answer)

Correct answer: /var/log/auth.log

Authentication events such as SSH logins and sudo are written to /var/log/auth.log on Debian-based systems.

Question 53: How many bits are in one byte?

8 (Correct answer)
4
16
32

Correct answer: 8

A byte consists of 8 bits.

Question 54: Which login method qualifies as true multifactor authentication?

Two different passwords
A password and a hardware token code (Correct answer)
A password and a security question
A PIN and a password

Correct answer: A password and a hardware token code

MFA requires factors from different categories, here something you know plus something you have.

Question 55: Which U.S. law sets privacy and security requirements for protected health information handled by healthcare providers and their business associates?

FERPA
GLBA
COPPA
HIPAA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HIPAA

HIPAA governs the protection of protected health information (PHI) in the U.S. healthcare sector.

Question 56: Which practice regularly merges developers' code into a shared repository with automated builds and tests?

Manual regression testing
Code obfuscation
Waterfall development
Continuous integration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continuous integration

Continuous integration merges code frequently and runs automated builds and tests to catch issues early.

Question 57: Which command displays the current IP configuration on Windows?

ipconfig (Correct answer)
tracert
ping
netstat

Correct answer: ipconfig

The `ipconfig` command is a command-line utility used on Microsoft Windows operating systems to display the current TCP/IP network configuration. It provides details such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all network adapters. This command is essential for network troubleshooting and verifying network settings.

Question 58: A customer is angry and raising their voice about a repeated computer failure. What is the BEST response from the technician?

Stay calm, listen without interrupting, and avoid arguing or being defensive (Correct answer)
Hang up and escalate the call immediately
Tell the customer the problem is their fault
Raise their own voice to match the customer's tone

Correct answer: Stay calm, listen without interrupting, and avoid arguing or being defensive

Remaining calm and listening helps de-escalate the situation and gather the information needed to help.

Question 59: Which statement BEST describes the role of an operating system?

It only stores user files
It replaces the need for device drivers
It is the physical chip that runs instructions
It manages hardware resources and provides services to applications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It manages hardware resources and provides services to applications

An operating system manages hardware and provides a platform for applications to run.

Question 60: How many PDUs must a PMI PMP holder earn every three years?

45
60 (Correct answer)
35
120

Correct answer: 60

PMP holders must earn 60 PDUs per three-year cycle.

Question 61: After running 'chmod 640 report.txt', what permissions apply?

Owner read/write/execute, group read, others read
Owner read/write, group read, others no access (Correct answer)
Owner read/write, group read/write, others read
Owner read, group read/write, others none

Correct answer: Owner read/write, group read, others no access

6 = read+write, 4 = read, and 0 = no permissions for owner, group, and others respectively.

Question 62: What is the Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) scheme used for?

Rotating backup media using daily, weekly, and monthly sets (Correct answer)
Naming parent and child DNS zones
Assigning hierarchical Active Directory permissions
Load balancing across three server tiers

Correct answer: Rotating backup media using daily, weekly, and monthly sets

GFS keeps daily (son), weekly (father), and monthly (grandfather) backups for long retention with fewer media.

Question 63: According to current NIST SP 800-63B guidance, which password practice is recommended?

Forcing password changes every 30 days
Checking new passwords against lists of known compromised passwords (Correct answer)
Requiring special characters in every password
Allowing password hints stored on the login page

Correct answer: Checking new passwords against lists of known compromised passwords

NIST recommends screening passwords against breach lists and discourages arbitrary periodic changes and composition rules.

Question 64: A database transaction either completes entirely or not at all. Which ACID property does this describe?

Durability
Isolation
Consistency
Atomicity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Atomicity

Atomicity ensures all operations in a transaction succeed or all are rolled back.

Question 65: An organization compares its current security controls against a target framework to find missing controls. What is this process called?

Gap analysis (Correct answer)
Regression analysis
Trend analysis
Packet analysis

Correct answer: Gap analysis

Gap analysis compares the current state with a desired state to find shortcomings.

Question 66: In Active Directory, Group Policy is processed in LSDOU order. Which level is applied last and wins conflicts by default?

Domain
Local
Site
Organizational Unit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Organizational Unit

OU-linked GPOs apply last, so their settings override earlier ones unless enforcement or blocking is used.

Question 67: An organization can tolerate losing at most 4 hours of data. Which metric does this describe?

Maximum Tolerable Downtime
Recovery Point Objective (Correct answer)
Mean Time Between Failures
Recovery Time Objective

Correct answer: Recovery Point Objective

RPO defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time.

Question 68: What is the foundational principle of communication and documentation in the Information Technology Certified field?

Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders (Correct answer)
Following the easiest path available
Maximizing personal advancement
Avoiding all challenging situations

Correct answer: Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders

The foundational principles of communication and documentation in Information Technology Certified center on maintaining competence, integrity, and quality service.

Question 69: What ethical standard governs applied methods and techniques practice?

Adherence to the profession's code of ethics and applicable laws and regulations (Correct answer)
Ethics are personal opinions, not professional requirements
Ethics only apply in academic settings
Ethical standards are optional for certified professionals

Correct answer: Adherence to the profession's code of ethics and applicable laws and regulations

Professional ethics codes and applicable laws provide the framework for ethical practice in every professional field.

Question 70: What is the main purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA) after a major outage?

To identify the underlying cause and prevent recurrence (Correct answer)
To assign blame to the responsible employee
To calculate the cost of downtime
To restore service as quickly as possible

Correct answer: To identify the underlying cause and prevent recurrence

RCA digs beneath symptoms to find the true cause so it does not happen again.

CompTIA Tech+ (FC0-U71) IT Fundamentals Certification

CompTIA Tech+ validates foundational IT knowledge across computing concepts, infrastructure, applications and software, software development, database fundamentals, and security, designed for non-technical professionals and those beginning an IT career.

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

72%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds