Ohio General X-Ray Machine Operator (GXMO) Knowledge Exam ā Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which approach is most effective for problem-solving in Image Quality?
- Always asking someone else
- Systematic analysis followed by evidence-based decision making (Correct answer)
- Random trial and error
- Ignoring the problem until it resolves itself
Correct answer: Systematic analysis followed by evidence-based decision making
Systematic, evidence-based approaches lead to more reliable solutions than ad hoc methods.
Question 2: What does the term "contrast" refer to in X-ray imaging?
- The amount of X-ray exposure used
- The speed at which the X-ray film develops
- The sharpness of the image
- The difference in density between various structures in the image (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The difference in density between various structures in the image
In X-ray imaging, contrast refers to the visible difference in shades of gray between adjacent anatomical structures or tissues within the image. High contrast means there's a significant difference in density, making structures clearly distinguishable, while low contrast means they appear more similar. Proper contrast is essential for differentiating between healthy and diseased tissues and for accurate diagnosis.
Question 3: What is the purpose of the X-ray machineās control panel?
- To generate X-rays
- To cool down the X-ray tube
- To adjust exposure parameters and settings (Correct answer)
- To filter out unnecessary X-rays
Correct answer: To adjust exposure parameters and settings
The control panel serves as the primary interface for the radiologic technologist to operate the X-ray machine. Its purpose is to allow for the selection and adjustment of various exposure parameters, such as kilovoltage peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). These adjustments are crucial for optimizing image quality and minimizing patient radiation dose for each specific examination.
Question 4: When performing a KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder) radiograph, the central ray is directed to:
- Umbilicus
- ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine)
- Xiphoid process
- Iliac crest level (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Iliac crest level
The central ray for a KUB is directed to the level of the iliac crests to include all urinary structures from the kidneys to the bladder.
Question 5: What role does continuing education play in Image Quality?
- Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments (Correct answer)
- It is optional and rarely helpful
- Only beneficial for management
- Only required for new practitioners
Correct answer: Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments
Continuing education ensures practitioners stay current with advances in their field.
Question 6: For a PA projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to the:
- Midpoint of the proximal phalanges
- First metacarpophalangeal joint
- Wrist joint
- Third metacarpophalangeal joint (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Third metacarpophalangeal joint
The central ray is directed perpendicular to the third (middle) metacarpophalangeal joint for the PA hand projection.
Question 7: When reviewing an image for diagnostic quality, which criterion confirms adequate penetration on a lateral thoracic spine radiograph?
- The spinous processes are clearly visualized
- The ribs are visible without overexposure
- The lung fields appear uniformly radiolucent
- Intervertebral disc spaces are visible through the superimposed shoulders (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Intervertebral disc spaces are visible through the superimposed shoulders
On a lateral thoracic spine, the intervertebral disc spaces must be visible through the shoulders to confirm sufficient penetration of all superimposed structures.
Question 8: Which type of grid is designed to be used at a specific SID range and will produce grid cutoff if used outside that range?
- Moving (Bucky) grid
- Cross-hatch grid
- Parallel grid
- Focused grid (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Focused grid
A focused grid has grid lines angled to align with the divergence of the X-ray beam at a specific SID, causing cutoff artifacts if used at incorrect distances.
Question 9: What is pair production and at what minimum photon energy does it occur?
- Creation of an electron-positron pair from a photon near a nucleus; requires at least 1.02 MeV (Correct answer)
- Electron ejection from outer shell; occurs above 10 keV
- Coherent scatter of two photons; occurs at any energy
- Complete photon absorption creating an ion pair; occurs above 33 keV
Correct answer: Creation of an electron-positron pair from a photon near a nucleus; requires at least 1.02 MeV
Pair production occurs when a photon with at least 1.02 MeV interacts near an atomic nucleus and is converted into an electron-positron pair.
Question 10: What is the primary purpose of a lead apron in X-ray imaging?
- To enhance the clarity of X-ray films
- To improve image quality
- To protect patients from unnecessary radiation exposure (Correct answer)
- To stabilize the X-ray machine
Correct answer: To protect patients from unnecessary radiation exposure
Lead aprons are essential in X-ray imaging because lead effectively blocks radiation. Their primary purpose is to shield sensitive body parts not being imaged from unnecessary radiation exposure, significantly reducing the patient's overall dose. This adherence to the ALARA principle (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) helps protect patients from potential radiation-induced harm.
Question 11: If SID is decreased from 40 inches to 20 inches with all other factors constant, radiographic density will:
- Decrease by half
- Remain the same
- Double
- Increase fourfold (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Increase fourfold
Halving the SID increases beam intensity by a factor of 4 per the inverse square law, quadrupling radiographic density.
Question 12: When using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC), the radiographer still manually selects:
- kVp (Correct answer)
- All exposure factors
- Exposure time
- mAs
Correct answer: kVp
With AEC, the radiographer selects kVp (and often mA station); the AEC device automatically controls exposure time to achieve proper receptor exposure.
Question 13: A patient's gonads should be shielded when the gonads are within what distance of the primary x-ray field?
- 10 cm
- 3 cm
- 1 cm
- 5 cm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5 cm
Lead gonadal shields should be used when the gonads are within 5 cm of the primary x-ray beam to reduce genetic dose.
Question 14: Which exposure factor most directly controls motion blur (voluntary or involuntary patient movement)?
- kVp
- SID
- mA
- Exposure time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Exposure time
Exposure time determines how long the patient is irradiated; shorter exposure times minimize the opportunity for motion to blur the image.
Question 15: Which bone forms the posterior portion of the hard palate and is demonstrated on a Waters (parietoacanthial) projection?
- Palatine bone (Correct answer)
- Maxilla
- Vomer
- Zygomatic bone
Correct answer: Palatine bone
The palatine bone forms the posterior one-third of the hard palate and is visible in the Waters projection used for facial bone evaluation.
Question 16: On a PA chest radiograph, the right heart border is not visible (silhouette sign). Which anatomical area is most likely affected?
- Right upper lobe
- Left lower lobe
- Right middle lobe (Correct answer)
- Right lower lobe
Correct answer: Right middle lobe
The silhouette sign occurs when a pathological process replaces air in a structure adjacent to the heart border; the right heart border is bordered by the right middle lobe.
Question 17: Which tissue type is considered most radiosensitive according to the law of BergoniƩ and Tribondeau?
- Rapidly dividing stem cells (Correct answer)
- Mature bone cells
- Nerve cells
- Muscle cells
Correct answer: Rapidly dividing stem cells
BergoniƩ and Tribondeau stated that cells are most radiosensitive when they are undifferentiated, rapidly dividing, and have a long mitotic future.
Question 18: What quality metrics are most important in Image Quality?
- Only financial metrics
- Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction (Correct answer)
- No metrics are needed
- Only speed of completion
Correct answer: Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction
Quality in Image Quality is measured through multiple dimensions including outcomes, processes, and satisfaction.
Question 19: What is the function of a collimator in an X-ray machine?
- To filter out non-diagnostic X-rays
- To focus the X-ray beam to the area of interest (Correct answer)
- To cool the X-ray tube
- To increase the X-ray tubeās output
Correct answer: To focus the X-ray beam to the area of interest
A collimator is a vital component of an X-ray machine that precisely controls the size and shape of the X-ray beam. Its function is to restrict the radiation field to only the specific area of interest, minimizing patient exposure to unnecessary radiation. This focused beam also reduces scatter radiation, which in turn improves the overall quality and clarity of the diagnostic image.
Question 20: What role does continuing education play in Patient Positioning?
- It is optional and rarely helpful
- Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments (Correct answer)
- Only beneficial for management
- Only required for new practitioners
Correct answer: Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments
Continuing education ensures practitioners stay current with advances in their field.
Question 21: What is the primary purpose of standardized procedures in Radiation Safety?
- To benefit only management
- To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners (Correct answer)
- To slow down work processes
- To create unnecessary bureaucracy
Correct answer: To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners
Standardized procedures ensure that all practitioners deliver consistent, safe, and high-quality outcomes.
Question 22: Which factor most directly controls the scale of contrast (long vs. short scale) on a radiographic image?
- SID
- kVp (Correct answer)
- mAs
- Focal spot size
Correct answer: kVp
kVp determines the energy of the X-ray beam and therefore the range of tissues that can be penetrated; high kVp produces long-scale (low) contrast, while low kVp produces short-scale (high) contrast.
Question 23: The Caldwell projection (PA axial) of the skull uses a tube angle of:
- 15 degrees caudad (Correct answer)
- 0 degrees (perpendicular)
- 15 degrees cephalad
- 30 degrees caudad
Correct answer: 15 degrees caudad
The Caldwell projection uses a 15-degree caudad angle to project the petrous ridges into the lower one-third of the orbits.
Question 24: Which pathological condition would appear most radiolucent (dark) on a standard radiograph?
- Emphysema (Correct answer)
- Atelectasis
- Pleural effusion
- Consolidation (pneumonia)
Correct answer: Emphysema
Emphysema causes hyperinflation and destruction of alveolar walls, increasing air content in the lungs and producing areas of decreased density (radiolucency) on the radiograph.
Question 25: Processor quality control temperature for the developer in a film processor should typically be maintained at approximately:
- 95°F (35°C) (Correct answer)
- 75°F (24°C)
- 120°F (49°C)
- 68°F (20°C)
Correct answer: 95°F (35°C)
Developer temperature is maintained at approximately 95°F (35°C) for standard rapid-access film processors; deviations alter development time and film density.
Question 26: Which exposure factor primarily controls the quality (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam?
- mAs
- Exposure time
- kVp (Correct answer)
- Focal spot size
Correct answer: kVp
kVp (kilovoltage peak) determines the energy of x-ray photons, directly controlling the beam's ability to penetrate tissue.
Question 27: Which quality control test is used to verify that the light field of the collimator accurately corresponds to the X-ray field?
- Sensitometric strip test
- Beam alignment (light/radiation field congruence) test (Correct answer)
- Half-value layer (HVL) test
- Focal spot size test
Correct answer: Beam alignment (light/radiation field congruence) test
The beam alignment test verifies that the visible light field from the collimator matches the actual radiation field within accepted tolerances (typically ±2% of SID).
Question 28: Which of the following best describes the correct hand placement when assisting a patient onto the x-ray table?
- Grip the patient's clothing to prevent falling
- Place one hand under the patient's arm and one behind the back for support (Correct answer)
- Hold the patient by the wrist to guide movement
- Stand behind the patient and push gently from behind
Correct answer: Place one hand under the patient's arm and one behind the back for support
Supporting under the arm and behind the back provides the most stable and safe assist when transferring a patient to the table.
Question 29: What does the term "half-value layer" (HVL) refer to in radiation physics?
- The thickness of material needed to reduce the radiation beam by half (Correct answer)
- The time required for an X-ray machine to cool down
- The maximum radiation dose a patient can receive
- The amount of radiation that reaches the detector
Correct answer: The thickness of material needed to reduce the radiation beam by half
The Half-Value Layer (HVL) is a critical concept in radiation physics that describes the penetrating power of an X-ray beam and the effectiveness of shielding materials. It refers to the thickness of a specific material required to reduce the intensity of an X-ray beam to exactly half of its original value. HVL measurements are important for quality control and ensuring appropriate beam filtration in diagnostic radiology.
Question 30: How should risk be managed in X-Ray Equipment Operation?
- Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks (Correct answer)
- Risk management is not necessary
- By ignoring potential problems
- By avoiding all risk entirely
Correct answer: Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks
Effective risk management involves a systematic process of identifying, evaluating, and addressing potential threats.
Question 31: Which body part typically requires the LOWEST kVp setting?
- Abdomen
- Hand or wrist (Correct answer)
- Chest (PA)
- Lumbar spine
Correct answer: Hand or wrist
Extremities like the hand and wrist require low kVp (50ā65 kVp) to produce adequate contrast between fine bony detail and soft tissue.
Question 32: Which unit is used to measure the absorbed dose of radiation in tissue?
- Roentgen
- Sievert
- Becquerel
- Gray (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Gray
The Gray (Gy) is the SI unit of absorbed dose, defined as 1 joule of energy deposited per kilogram of tissue.
Question 33: For a lateral projection of the lumbar spine, the patient's hips and knees are flexed primarily to:
- Reduce the lordotic curve and bring the spine parallel to the IR (Correct answer)
- Decrease the exposure area
- Reduce the object-to-image distance
- Prevent rotation of the pelvis
Correct answer: Reduce the lordotic curve and bring the spine parallel to the IR
Flexing the hips and knees reduces lumbar lordosis, which helps align the long axis of the spine more parallel to the image receptor.
Question 34: Which personal dosimeter provides the most accurate measurement of cumulative radiation dose over time?
- Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) (Correct answer)
- Ionization chamber survey meter
- Geiger-Müller counter
- Survey meter
Correct answer: Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
TLDs store energy from ionizing radiation in crystal lattice traps and release it as light when heated, providing accurate cumulative dose measurements.
Question 35: Which body position is used to demonstrate free air in the peritoneal cavity when a patient cannot stand?
- Prone
- Left lateral decubitus (Correct answer)
- Right lateral decubitus
- Trendelenburg
Correct answer: Left lateral decubitus
The left lateral decubitus position places the right side up so free air rises and is visible against the liver, away from the gastric bubble.
Question 36: Which of the following is an appropriate measure to reduce radiation exposure to a patient?
- Using the highest possible kVp setting
- Increasing the exposure time
- Employing the ALARA principle (Correct answer)
- Decreasing the distance between the X-ray source and the patient
Correct answer: Employing the ALARA principle
The ALARA principle, standing for 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable,' is a fundamental tenet of radiation protection. It mandates that all radiation exposures should be kept to the lowest possible level, considering economic and social factors. Employing ALARA involves using proper shielding, optimizing exposure parameters, and minimizing exposure time to effectively reduce patient radiation dose.
Question 37: Protective gonad shielding should NOT be used when:
- The patient is of reproductive age
- The gonads are within 5 cm of the primary beam
- Shielding would obscure the area of diagnostic interest (Correct answer)
- The patient is a child
Correct answer: Shielding would obscure the area of diagnostic interest
Gonad shielding should not be applied if it will cover the area being imaged, as this would compromise diagnostic quality.
Question 38: What is the most important foundational concept in Radiation Safety?
- Ignoring established guidelines
- Only following instructions from supervisors
- Memorizing all rules without understanding
- Understanding core principles and their practical application in Radiation Safety (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Understanding core principles and their practical application in Radiation Safety
Core principles provide the foundation for all decision-making and practice in Radiation Safety.
Question 39: What is the primary purpose of standardized procedures in Image Quality?
- To create unnecessary bureaucracy
- To slow down work processes
- To benefit only management
- To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners
Standardized procedures ensure that all practitioners deliver consistent, safe, and high-quality outcomes.
Question 40: Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of free air (pneumoperitoneum) on an upright abdominal radiograph?
- Loss of psoas muscle shadow
- Air-fluid levels in the bowel
- Air under the diaphragm (Correct answer)
- Soft tissue calcifications
Correct answer: Air under the diaphragm
Free intraperitoneal air rises to the highest point in the abdomen and appears as a radiolucent crescent under the diaphragm on an upright view.
Question 41: Which of the following contrast agents is water-soluble and preferred when bowel perforation is suspected?
- Gastrografin (diatrizoate meglumine) (Correct answer)
- Barium sulfate suspension
- Iodinated oil-based contrast
- Micropaque barium
Correct answer: Gastrografin (diatrizoate meglumine)
Gastrografin is water-soluble and is absorbed if it leaks into the peritoneum, making it safer than barium when perforation is suspected.
Question 42: Grid ratio is defined as the ratio of:
- Primary to scatter radiation
- Grid strip height to lead strip width
- Lead strip height to inter-space width (Correct answer)
- Number of lead strips per cm
Correct answer: Lead strip height to inter-space width
Grid ratio = h/D, where h is the height (depth) of the lead strips and D is the width of the radiolucent interspaces between them.
Question 43: Which term describes the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between two adjacent structures that have very similar subject contrast?
- Modulation transfer function
- Spatial resolution
- Dynamic range
- Contrast resolution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Contrast resolution
Contrast resolution (low-contrast detectability) is the ability to differentiate between structures with similar densities, distinct from spatial resolution which refers to sharpness.
Question 44: Which type of radiation interaction results in a scattered photon with less energy than the incident photon and a recoil electron?
- Coherent (Rayleigh) scattering
- Pair production
- Compton scattering (Correct answer)
- Photoelectric effect
Correct answer: Compton scattering
In Compton scattering, the incident photon transfers part of its energy to a free or loosely bound outer-shell electron, scattering both the electron and a lower-energy photon.
Question 45: A radiographer increases kVp while reducing mAs to maintain similar image density. What effect does this have on patient dose?
- Patient dose remains exactly the same
- Patient dose is unaffected because only mAs matters
- Patient dose decreases (Correct answer)
- Patient dose increases significantly
Correct answer: Patient dose decreases
Increasing kVp and reducing mAs (the 15% rule) generally reduces patient entrance skin dose because higher-energy photons penetrate tissue more efficiently, requiring less total beam output.
Question 46: Which of the following is an example of a stochastic radiation effect?
- Radiation-induced cancer (Correct answer)
- Acute radiation syndrome
- Radiation-induced cataracts
- Radiation-induced skin erythema
Correct answer: Radiation-induced cancer
Stochastic effects like cancer induction have a probability of occurrence that increases with dose but no threshold; severity is independent of dose.
Question 47: To maintain the same density when SID is decreased from 40 inches to 20 inches, mAs should be:
- Halved
- Kept the same
- Doubled
- Reduced to one-quarter (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reduced to one-quarter
Since halving SID quadruples intensity, mAs must be reduced to 1/4 to compensate using the exposure maintenance formula (mAsā/mAsā = SIDā²/SIDā²).
Question 48: Which artifact is commonly caused by patient movement during an X-ray exposure?
- Ghosting
- Motion Blur (Correct answer)
- Beam Hardening
- Quantum Mottle
Correct answer: Motion Blur
Motion blur is a common artifact in X-ray images that is directly caused by patient movement during the X-ray exposure. Even slight movement can result in blurred or indistinct anatomical structures, making the image difficult to interpret diagnostically. Radiologic technologists employ clear instructions and, when necessary, immobilization techniques to minimize patient motion.
Question 49: What is the primary effect of increasing the kVp (kilovoltage peak) setting on an X-ray image?
- Has no effect on the X-ray image quality
- Decreases the contrast and increases the penetration of the X-ray beam (Correct answer)
- Reduces the image resolution
- Increases the contrast and decreases the penetration of the X-ray beam
Correct answer: Decreases the contrast and increases the penetration of the X-ray beam
Increasing the kVp (kilovoltage peak) setting increases the energy and penetrating power of the X-ray beam. This allows more X-rays to pass through denser tissues, resulting in a wider range of gray shades and thus decreasing the overall image contrast. While penetration increases, the differences between tissue densities become less pronounced, leading to a 'longer scale' of contrast.
Question 50: When positioning a trauma patient with a suspected cervical spine injury for a lateral cervical radiograph, the technologist should:
- Flex the neck to open the intervertebral spaces
- Remove the cervical collar before positioning
- Extend the neck to demonstrate all seven vertebrae
- Take the image with the collar in place and avoid moving the neck (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Take the image with the collar in place and avoid moving the neck
In suspected cervical spine injury, the collar stays on and the neck must not be manipulated until injury is ruled out.
Question 51: How does technology impact modern practices in Image Quality?
- Technology is only useful for record keeping
- Technology improves efficiency, accuracy, and access to information while requiring new skills (Correct answer)
- Technology has no impact on this field
- Technology replaces all human judgment
Correct answer: Technology improves efficiency, accuracy, and access to information while requiring new skills
Technology enhances capabilities while also requiring practitioners to develop new competencies.
Question 52: What makes a professional competent in Patient Positioning?
- Only formal education matters
- Only experience matters
- Only certifications matter
- A combination of education, practical experience, ongoing learning, and adherence to professional standards (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A combination of education, practical experience, ongoing learning, and adherence to professional standards
Competence requires the integration of knowledge, skills, experience, and professional conduct.
Question 53: What are the key regulatory requirements affecting Patient Positioning?
- Regulations are optional guidelines
- Only federal regulations apply
- Compliance with applicable laws, industry standards, and licensing requirements specific to the field (Correct answer)
- There are no regulations
Correct answer: Compliance with applicable laws, industry standards, and licensing requirements specific to the field
Practitioners must comply with all applicable regulations, which may include federal, state, and industry-specific requirements.
Question 54: Which action should be taken when an X-ray unit's timer accuracy is found to be outside the ±5% tolerance during QC testing?
- Document the finding but continue using the unit
- Reduce the kVp by 5%
- Remove the unit from service and arrange for repair or calibration (Correct answer)
- Increase the mAs to compensate
Correct answer: Remove the unit from service and arrange for repair or calibration
An X-ray unit with timer accuracy outside acceptable tolerances must be taken out of service for repair or calibration to ensure consistent, safe exposures.
Question 55: Which anatomical structure is located at the level of the sternal angle (angle of Louis) and is used as a landmark for chest X-rays?
- T8-T9 intervertebral disc
- T4-T5 intervertebral disc (Correct answer)
- L1-L2 intervertebral disc
- T1-T2 intervertebral disc
Correct answer: T4-T5 intervertebral disc
The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds to the level of the T4-T5 intervertebral disc and marks the carina of the trachea.
Question 56: What makes a professional competent in X-Ray Equipment Operation?
- Only formal education matters
- A combination of education, practical experience, ongoing learning, and adherence to professional standards (Correct answer)
- Only experience matters
- Only certifications matter
Correct answer: A combination of education, practical experience, ongoing learning, and adherence to professional standards
Competence requires the integration of knowledge, skills, experience, and professional conduct.
Question 57: In digital radiography, exposure index (EI) values are used to:
- Set kVp automatically
- Control collimator position
- Indicate the amount of radiation that reached the detector for a given exposure (Correct answer)
- Measure beam HVL
Correct answer: Indicate the amount of radiation that reached the detector for a given exposure
The exposure index (EI) is a numerical indicator of detector exposure level, helping technologists identify over- or underexposure even when the displayed image looks acceptable.
Question 58: How should risk be managed in Radiation Safety?
- Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks (Correct answer)
- Risk management is not necessary
- By avoiding all risk entirely
- By ignoring potential problems
Correct answer: Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks
Effective risk management involves a systematic process of identifying, evaluating, and addressing potential threats.
Question 59: What is the PRIMARY purpose of using a radiographic grid?
- Reduce scatter radiation reaching the receptor (Correct answer)
- Decrease patient dose
- Increase image receptor exposure speed
- Improve focal spot performance
Correct answer: Reduce scatter radiation reaching the receptor
A grid is placed between the patient and image receptor to absorb off-angle scatter radiation and improve radiographic contrast.
Question 60: Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce quantum mottle (noise) in a digital radiographic image?
- Decreasing SID
- Using a higher grid ratio
- Increasing mAs (Correct answer)
- Increasing kVp only
Correct answer: Increasing mAs
Quantum mottle is caused by insufficient X-ray photons reaching the detector; increasing mAs delivers more photons, reducing the statistical noise (mottle) in the image.
Ohio General X-Ray Machine Operator (GXMO) Knowledge Exam
The Ohio GXMO Knowledge Exam tests candidates on radiation safety, radiographic equipment and physics, image quality, digital imaging, technique, and patient care ā required for licensure to operate diagnostic x-ray equipment under the Ohio Department of Health.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong ā answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds