MBBS Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery

FREE Bachelor of Medicine & Bachelor of Surgery Trivia Questions and Answers

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Which statement about the Renin-Angiotensin System is TRUE?

Correct! Wrong!

Reduced renal perfusion enhances RENAL RENIN production, which in turn stimulates liver angiotensinogen to become angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is changed into Angiotensin II by ACE, which is released by the endothelium of the lungs and kidneys. Angiotensin II then exerts its effects in a variety of ways, such as increasing pituitary ADH synthesis, raising blood pressure by triggering arteriolar vasoconstriction, and increasing adrenal aldosterone secretion, among others. Once equilibrium is reached, all of those factors feed back to suppress renin production.

A 56-year-old guy who underwent a heart catheterization earlier in the day is brought to your attention. He expresses pain in the femoral region (site of procedure). A painful, pulsating lump is palpable, and ultrasound results support your probable diagnosis of pseudoaneurysm. The tumor had kept growing despite fruitless attempts to treat the compression of the ultrasonography probe and thrombin injection. What should we do next?

Correct! Wrong!

Up to 10% of operations involving vascular access, including as cardiac catheterization and vascular trauma, can result in post-interventional or post-traumatic vascular pseudoaneurysms. They may appear as pulsatile, uncomfortable, tender masses near the procedure site or as a vascular damage. Both clinical diagnosis and ultrasonography are used to make diagnoses. There are a number of therapy options available, including surgery (ligation with potential bypass), ultrasound probe compression, covered stents, and ultrasound-guided thrombin injections (contraindicated if there is an AV fistula). If the size is 2 cm or smaller, compression is most likely to be effective. Surgery is often only used in the most extreme instances. All therapies are most effective if the patient is not on any blood thinners, however this is not always achievable.

After an MVC, an ambulance transports a 43-year-old woman who has numerous left rib fractures and respiratory problems to the emergency department. She exhibits tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypoxia. Chest XR shows the tip of the NG tube in the left chest after an NG tube is inserted. Which statement about the issue with this patient is accurate?

Correct! Wrong!

The abdominal organs being pushed into the chest are presumably the result of a catastrophic diaphragmatic injury. Due to the liver's defensive nature on the right side, this occurs more frequently on the left. It is important to undergo transabdominal repair as quickly as feasible in cases of acute diaphragmatic injuries.

Chyle leaks are frequently treated by adding extra of the following fatty acids to the patient's diet:

Correct! Wrong!

MCT diets, which stand for medium-chain triglycerides or medium-chain fatty acids, are frequently prescribed to patients with chyle leakage. This is because MCT and short-chain fatty acids are transported straight from the GI tract into the portal system, not the lymphatic system, whereas long-chain fatty acids are conveyed through the lymphatic system and would consequently be present in the chyle leak.

A biological mechanism for each of the following bacteria's antibiotic resistance is correctly matched, WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:

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Enzymatic changes that result in aminoglycoside resistance are the main cause of gentamycin resistance. Other methods include changed ribosomal binding sites, decreased ribosomal uptake, and decreased cell permeability. Through the development of a mutant PBP, PBP2a, S. aureus can develop resistance to methicillin and other ß-lactam antibiotics while still being able to carry out the duties of the host PBPs. One of the most dreaded strains of resistant bacteria is Resistant Klebsiella (KPC), which is immune to practically all antibiotics. Most frequently, heavy dosages of carbapenems or medications like colistin or tigecycline are employed.

A woman visits the emergency room six days after starting warfarin therapy with severe, black eschars on her arm, breast, buttocks, and foot. Your presumed illness is probably caused by a lack in one of the following:

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A uncommon condition known as warfarin-induced skin necrosis causes skin and subcutaneous necrosis as a result of an acquired protein C and/or protein S deficit. These patients are typically obese females who have been on warfarin for three to ten days. The lesions begin as uncomfortable erythematous spots, which swiftly develop into bullous patches and finally eschars. The most frequent locations are the breasts, thighs, and buttocks. This development may be brought on by a large initial dose or, in certain situations, by a failure to bridge from heparin to warfarin. The preferred therapy is heparin.

Which of the following typically becomes severely depleted and is frequently administered after large and enormous blood transfusions:

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Usually, calcium gluconate is administered following larger transfusions. Because transfused blood is combined with citrate to prevent it from clotting, the citrate binds much of the available calcium, making the blood calcium-poor. This is the cause of calcium depletion. In individuals who are at risk for hemorrhaging, calcium replacement is especially crucial since it is a crucial part of the clotting (coagulation) cascade.