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Medical Emergencies Flashcards

7 cards from real FISDAP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Medical Emergencies flashcards as text

  1. A 55-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain radiating to his left jaw and diaphoresis. After administering aspirin and nitroglycerin, his BP drops to 80/50 mmHg. What is your next intervention?

    Answer: Establish IV access and administer a fluid bolus

    Nitroglycerin-induced hypotension requires IV fluid bolus to restore adequate perfusion pressure before further NTG administration.

  2. During assessment of an unresponsive diabetic patient, you note a blood glucose of 28 mg/dL. The patient has no IV access and you are unable to establish one. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Administer glucagon 1 mg IM

    Glucagon 1 mg IM is the correct treatment for severe hypoglycemia when IV access cannot be established in an unresponsive patient.

  3. A 70-year-old female is found unresponsive with a history of COPD. She is breathing at 6/min with SpO2 of 78%. What ventilation approach is most appropriate?

    Answer: Assist ventilations with BVM and 100% oxygen

    Respiratory failure (rate 6/min, SpO2 78%) requires assisted ventilation with BVM; concern for hypoxic drive does not override the need to correct life-threatening hypoxia.

  4. Which finding is MOST consistent with a right-sided tension pneumothorax?

    Answer: Tracheal deviation to the left, absent breath sounds on the right

    Tension pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation away from the affected side; a right-sided tension shifts the trachea to the left with absent right-sided breath sounds.

  5. A patient with a known seizure disorder has been seizing for 12 minutes continuously. Which term best describes this presentation?

    Answer: Status epilepticus

    Status epilepticus is defined as a single seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without recovery of consciousness between episodes.

  6. You are treating a 40-year-old with anaphylaxis who received epinephrine 1:1,000 IM 10 minutes ago. He remains hypotensive with urticaria and wheezing. What is the correct next action?

    Answer: Repeat epinephrine 1:1,000 IM and establish IV access for fluids

    Persistent anaphylaxis after initial epinephrine warrants a repeat IM dose of epinephrine 1:1,000 along with IV fluid resuscitation for hypotension.

  7. A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life,' nausea, and photophobia. Vital signs are stable. What condition should you most suspect?

    Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    A sudden thunderclap headache described as the worst of one's life is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage until proven otherwise.