FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Class C.
Class E. (Correct answer)
Class G.

Correct answer: Class E.

To determine the airspace type, one must refer to a sectional chart. The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport (Figure 20, area 1) is depicted with a magenta dashed line around it. A magenta dashed line on a sectional chart indicates Class E airspace extending to the surface, meaning controlled airspace begins at the surface around this airport.

Question 2: In the context of FAA certification, what is the most important consideration when implementing privacy & public safety considerations?

Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices (Correct answer)
Delegating all responsibilities to junior staff
Minimizing documentation to save time
Completing implementation as quickly as possible regardless of quality

Correct answer: Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices

When implementing privacy & public safety considerations, FAA professionals must ensure alignment with industry standards and stakeholder needs. Hasty implementation without proper planning often leads to compliance issues and suboptimal outcomes.

Question 3: Under Part 107, which operations are subject to the 400-foot AGL ceiling restriction?

Operations over congested areas only
Operations within 5 miles of an airport only
Only operations in uncontrolled airspace
All sUAS operations unless within 400 feet of a structure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All sUAS operations unless within 400 feet of a structure

The 400-foot AGL ceiling applies to all Part 107 operations unless the sUAS is within 400 feet of a structure, in which case it may fly higher relative to the structure.

Question 4: Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator
The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

Lines of longitude, also known as meridians, are imaginary lines that run from the North Pole to the South Pole. They are perpendicular to the Equator and all lines of latitude, crossing them at right angles. Lines of latitude, on the other hand, are parallel to the Equator and to each other.

Question 5: Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
Make all turns to the left.
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

At noncontrolled airports, pilots are expected to comply with any FAA-established traffic pattern for that airport, as outlined in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). If no specific pattern is established, pilots should follow the recommended standard traffic pattern, which typically involves left turns. This standardization helps ensure predictable and safe flow of air traffic.

Question 6: When a FAA professional encounters an unfamiliar challenge in payload & performance calculations, what is the recommended first course of action?

Postpone addressing the issue indefinitely
Research applicable standards, consult with subject matter experts, and document the approach (Correct answer)
Apply the solution used for the most recent similar problem without adaptation
Proceed based on personal intuition alone

Correct answer: Research applicable standards, consult with subject matter experts, and document the approach

Professional practice requires a methodical approach to unfamiliar challenges: research the applicable standards, consult experts when needed, and document the reasoning for the chosen approach.

Question 7: A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate.
Takeoff to the west because the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed.
Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

Given that the calculated takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle (1,980 feet) is very close to the available runway length (2,100 feet), and the temperature is 'warmer than expected,' the safest choice is to wait for conditions to improve. High temperatures lead to higher density altitude, which degrades aircraft performance and increases required takeoff distances. Waiting for cooler temperatures will reduce the required takeoff distance, providing a safer margin for obstacle clearance.

Question 8: Which airspace class extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 and covers the entire contiguous United States?

Class B
Class C
Class A (Correct answer)
Class E

Correct answer: Class A

Class A airspace covers the contiguous U.S. from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 (60,000 feet).

Question 9: In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?

Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

Torque effect is greatest in a single-engine airplane when the engine is producing maximum power and the propeller is rotating at high RPM, especially at low airspeeds and high angles of attack. These conditions maximize the twisting force exerted by the engine on the airframe, causing a pronounced roll tendency opposite to the propeller's rotation.

Question 10: What role does hypoxia play for a remote pilot conducting ground-based UAS operations at high-elevation locations such as mountainous terrain?

Hypoxia only affects manned aircraft pilots at altitude and is irrelevant to remote pilots
Hypoxia increases alertness and improves decision-making at high elevations
Hypoxia has no effect below 10,000 feet MSL under any circumstances
Mild hypoxia at elevations above approximately 5,000–8,000 feet can subtly impair judgment and mental performance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mild hypoxia at elevations above approximately 5,000–8,000 feet can subtly impair judgment and mental performance

Even at moderate elevations, reduced oxygen availability can impair cognitive function, and remote pilots at high-altitude ground sites should be aware of potential hypoxic effects.

Question 11: Why should temperature be monitored before a drone flight?

To prevent battery and flight performance issues (Correct answer)
To ensure maximum camera focus.
To increase propeller speed.
To affect drone color.

Correct answer: To prevent battery and flight performance issues

Monitoring temperature before a drone flight is crucial because extreme temperatures, both hot and cold, can severely impact battery and flight performance. Cold temperatures reduce battery capacity and power output, while high temperatures can lead to overheating, both of which degrade efficiency and potentially damage the drone.

Question 12: Please see Figure 17. Which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will

intercept the 360 radial at a 45° angle inbound.
cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound. (Correct answer)
intercept the 225 radial at a 45° angle.

Correct answer: cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound.

In Figure 17, illustration 2, the aircraft is heading 225° with the OBS set to 225° TO and the CDI centered. This means the aircraft is flying directly towards the VOR on the 225° inbound course (which corresponds to being on the 045° radial from the VOR). If the present heading of 225° is maintained, the aircraft will pass over the VOR and then continue flying outbound on the 225° radial. As it flies outbound, it will cross the 180° radial at an angle of 45° (225° - 180° = 45°).

Question 13: Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

When departing from a satellite airport within Class C airspace that does not have an operating control tower, the pilot must establish two-way radio communication with the primary Class C airport's Air Traffic Control (ATC) as soon as practicable after takeoff. This ensures ATC is aware of the aircraft's presence and can provide appropriate services and separation within the controlled airspace. This is a critical safety procedure for integrating into controlled traffic.

Question 14: (Refer to Figure 20.) En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Regional at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?

1529. (Correct answer)
1516.
1521.

Correct answer: 1529.

First determine your estimated time of arrival at your destination, which in this case is First Flight Airport. In the five minutes between 1456 and 1501, you flew from Hampton Roads Airport to Chesapeake Regional. If you measure that number of miles, by knowing the time and distance you can find your groundspeed. Use the edge of a piece of paper, make marks at the centers of the airports and measure the distance between your marks on the nautical mile scale at the top of the figure. You should get 9 nautical miles. Using the same method, measure the remaining number of miles from Chesapeake Regional to First Flight Airport, and you should get 50 nautical miles. Now use the computer to find how fast you are going. Put 9 miles on the outer scale of your computer next to 5 minutes on the inner scale. (You don't have 5 on the inner scale so use 50 instead.) Look next to the 60-minute arrow on the inner scale and read on the outer scale your groundspeed. You should get 108 nautical miles per hour (or 108 knots). To find out how long it will take you to fly the remaining 50 miles, run your finger around the outer scale until you get to 50 miles and look on the inner scale to see how many minutes the trip will take. You should get 28 minutes. You were at Chesapeake Regional at 1501 and its 28 more minutes to your estimated time of arrival at First Flight Airport, or 1529. Answers A and B are incorrect and could be obtained by incorrect measurement of the distances between airports or inaccuracies in the use of the flight computer.

Question 15: Which of the following is a waiviable provision under Part 107?

The prohibition on operating at night (Correct answer)
The requirement to carry proof of registration
The requirement to register the sUAS
The minimum pilot age of 16

Correct answer: The prohibition on operating at night

Night operations under Part 107.29 are waiviable, and the FAA issued a final rule in 2021 also making them allowable with anti-collision lighting.

Question 16: When a FAA professional encounters an unfamiliar challenge in sectional chart reading & navigation, what is the recommended first course of action?

Postpone addressing the issue indefinitely
Apply the solution used for the most recent similar problem without adaptation
Proceed based on personal intuition alone
Research applicable standards, consult with subject matter experts, and document the approach (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Research applicable standards, consult with subject matter experts, and document the approach

Professional practice requires a methodical approach to unfamiliar challenges: research the applicable standards, consult experts when needed, and document the reasoning for the chosen approach.

Question 17: What should a pilot do if unexpected weather arises during a flight?

Continue with the mission.
Safely land and reassess conditions (Correct answer)
Increase flight speed.
Ignore the changes.

Correct answer: Safely land and reassess conditions

If unexpected weather arises during a drone flight, the safest and most responsible action is to immediately land the drone in a secure location and reassess the conditions. Continuing to fly in deteriorating weather significantly increases the risk of an accident, damage to the drone, or injury to others.

Question 18: Under the general BasicMed rules a pilot can fly

without restrictions outside of the United States.
carrying passengers or cargo for compensation or hire.
in furtherance of a business. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: in furtherance of a business.

Under the general BasicMed rules (14 CFR Part 61.113(i) and 68), a pilot can fly in furtherance of a business, provided they are not flying for compensation or hire. This means a pilot can use an aircraft for business travel or activities, as long as they are not being paid specifically for the flight itself. This expands the utility of BasicMed beyond purely recreational flying.

Question 19: (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

1445Z.
1345Z.
1645Z. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1645Z.

First, convert the departure time from Central Standard Time (CST) to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) by adding 6 hours (0845 CST + 6 hours = 1445Z). Then, add the 2-hour flight duration to the UTC departure time. This results in a landing time of 1645Z (1445Z + 2 hours).

Question 20: (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants.......................340 lb Rear seat occupants........................295 lb Fuel (main wing tanks)......................44 gal Baggage.....................................56 lb

20 pounds overweight, CG within limits. (Correct answer)
20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits.
20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward limits.

Correct answer: 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.

A complete weight and balance calculation involves summing the empty weight, occupants, fuel, and baggage to determine the total aircraft weight and total moment. In this scenario, the calculated total weight exceeds the maximum certificated gross weight by 20 pounds. However, after calculating the center of gravity (Total Moment / Total Weight), its position falls within the allowable CG range specified in the aircraft's weight and balance envelope.

Question 21: (Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?

9. (Correct answer)
8.
2.

Correct answer: 9.

First, locate Elizabeth City VOR (area 3) and the town of Shawboro on Figure 20. Draw a line from the VOR to Shawboro. This line represents the aircraft's position relative to the VOR. By aligning this line with the VOR rose, you can determine that Shawboro lies approximately on the 255° radial from the Elizabeth City VOR. Since the aircraft is positioned *over* Shawboro, it is *from* the VOR. Therefore, the correct VOR indication (Figure 28) would show the OBS set to 255°, a centered CDI, and a FROM flag, which corresponds to illustration 9.

Question 22: (Refer to Legend 1) What symbol would indicate a VORTAC location on an airport?

A runway configuration with a dot. (Correct answer)
A circle with a dot in the center.
A hexagon with a dot in the middle.

Correct answer: A runway configuration with a dot.

On an aeronautical chart, a runway configuration with a dot in the middle specifically indicates an airport that also hosts a VORTAC facility. The runway symbol identifies it as an airport, while the central dot signifies the presence of a VORTAC, which is a combined VOR and TACAN navigation aid. This symbol helps pilots quickly identify airports that serve as important navigational reference points.

Question 23: What does a group obstruction symbol (multiple towers clustered together) on a sectional chart depict?

A wind farm or multiple towers within a small area (Correct answer)
Multiple NAVAIDs located at the same site
A single very tall tower with guy wires
A cluster of buildings in an urban area

Correct answer: A wind farm or multiple towers within a small area

A group obstruction symbol on a sectional chart represents multiple obstacles (commonly wind turbines or communication towers) located within a small geographic area.

Question 24: If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

10 gallons.
15 gallons. (Correct answer)
12 gallons.

Correct answer: 15 gallons.

To bring the aircraft's weight within limits when it is 90 pounds overweight, fuel must be drained. Aviation gasoline (AVGAS) weighs 6 pounds per gallon. To determine the amount of fuel to drain, divide the excess weight by the fuel's density: 90 lbs / 6 lbs/gallon = 15 gallons.

Question 25: Which best explains why payload placement fore or aft of the drone's center affects motor heating during sustained hover?

Payload position affects heating only during aggressive maneuvers, not hover
Off-center payload forces asymmetric motor compensation, causing some motors to run hotter than others (Correct answer)
Motor temperatures are controlled by the ESC regardless of payload position
Fore/aft imbalance only affects GPS lock accuracy

Correct answer: Off-center payload forces asymmetric motor compensation, causing some motors to run hotter than others

An imbalanced CG causes the flight controller to command higher throttle on one side to maintain level flight, overloading those motors.

Question 26: Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) consist of:

Two synchronized flashing lights at the sides of the runway threshold (Correct answer)
Green lights marking the runway centerline
Amber lights indicating the caution zone
A row of white lights along the runway edge

Correct answer: Two synchronized flashing lights at the sides of the runway threshold

REIL consists of two synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold, providing rapid identification of the approach end.

Question 27: How does humidity affect drone performance?

It has no effect on performance.
It improves propeller speed.
It reduces lift and battery efficiency (Correct answer)
It increases battery life.

Correct answer: It reduces lift and battery efficiency

High humidity increases the density altitude, making the air less dense, which directly impacts a drone's performance. This reduced air density decreases the lift generated by the propellers, forcing the drone to work harder and consume more battery power, thereby reducing flight efficiency and duration.

Question 28: Where are official specifications of aircraft, propeller, and engines found?

In the aircraft equipment list.
In the airframe maintenance logbook.
In the FAA-approved AFM/POH. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: In the FAA-approved AFM/POH.

Official specifications for aircraft, propellers, and engines, including operating limitations and approved configurations, are primarily found in the FAA-approved Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) or Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH). These documents contain critical information necessary for safe operation and maintenance, ensuring the aircraft is operated within its certified limits.

Question 29: A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

a forecast briefing.
a prognostic briefing.
an outlook briefing. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: an outlook briefing.

An outlook briefing is a type of weather briefing provided by an AFSS when the proposed departure time is 6 or more hours in the future. This briefing provides a general overview of the weather conditions expected for the planned flight, allowing the pilot to make preliminary go/no-go decisions or to anticipate potential weather challenges well in advance. It is less detailed than a standard or abbreviated briefing.

Question 30: (Refer to Figures 23 and 58.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Use 6° west variation.

043°. (Correct answer)
038°.
033°.

Correct answer: 043°.

To determine the compass heading, first measure the true course from the sectional chart and calculate the true heading using a flight computer to account for wind correction. Next, convert the true heading to a magnetic heading by applying the given 6° west magnetic variation (add for west variation). Finally, consult the aircraft's compass deviation card (Figure 58) for the calculated magnetic heading to find and apply the deviation, resulting in the compass heading to steer.

Question 31: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. (Correct answer)
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Correct answer: Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

A Military Operations Area (MOA) is designated airspace established to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted. Within an MOA, military pilots perform maneuvers such as air combat tactics, aerobatics, and abrupt changes in altitude and speed. These activities pose a potential hazard to non-participating aircraft, requiring pilots to exercise extreme caution when flying through or near an MOA.

Question 32: (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
Mode C transponder and two-way radio. (Correct answer)
Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.

Correct answer: Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

To operate within Class C airspace, such as that surrounding Norfolk International (KORF) as depicted in Figure 20, area 1, an aircraft must be equipped with an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC and an operating Mode C transponder. The Mode C transponder provides automatic altitude reporting, which is crucial for ATC to maintain separation in this controlled airspace. These requirements ensure proper communication and identification for safety.

Question 33: A commercial drone operator wants to subcontract a flight to another pilot. Which requirement must the subcontracted pilot meet?

They must hold a valid Part 107 remote pilot certificate (Correct answer)
Subcontracting drone work is prohibited under Part 107
They can fly under the contracting company's certificate as a co-pilot
They only need a recreational UAS safety test certificate

Correct answer: They must hold a valid Part 107 remote pilot certificate

Any person acting as RPIC for compensation must hold their own valid Part 107 remote pilot certificate.

Question 34: If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

August 31, 1 year later.
August 8, next year.
August 31, 2 years later. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: August 31, 2 years later.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.56) require pilots to complete a flight review every 24 calendar months to remain current. A 'calendar month' means the review is valid until the end of the month, two years later. Therefore, if a flight review was completed on August 8th of this year, the next flight review is due by August 31st, two years later.

Question 35: Drone activities from a moving vehicle are only permitted under Part 107 guidelines if the following conditions are met:

It is done over a sparsely populated area (Correct answer)
It is done by a Part 107-licensed drone pilot
The drone remains within visual line-of-sight

Correct answer: It is done over a sparsely populated area

Under Part 107.25, operating a small unmanned aircraft from a moving vehicle is generally prohibited. However, an exception allows for operations from a moving land or water-borne vehicle *if* the operation is conducted over a sparsely populated area. This exception aims to minimize risks to people and property on the ground, as there are fewer potential hazards in such areas.

Question 36: Under Part 107, which weather condition would most likely require a waiver before conducting operations?

Wind gusts up to 20 mph
Temperatures above 90°F
Clear skies with 15 mph steady winds
Flight visibility below 3 statute miles (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Flight visibility below 3 statute miles

Part 107 requires minimum 3 statute miles flight visibility; operations below this visibility require a waiver from the FAA.

Question 37: Which condition most affects barometric pressure sensors in drones?

Humidity.
Sudden weather changes (Correct answer)
Dust.
Radio signals.

Correct answer: Sudden weather changes

Barometric pressure sensors in drones are vital for maintaining altitude and stability, and sudden weather changes significantly affect their accuracy. Rapid shifts in atmospheric pressure due to developing weather systems, like fronts or thunderstorms, can cause these sensors to provide incorrect altitude readings, impacting drone control.

Question 38: (Refer to Figure 21.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

118.0 MHz.
117.1 MHz. (Correct answer)
122.2 MHz.

Correct answer: 117.1 MHz.

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) broadcasts continuous summaries of hazardous weather information over select VOR navigation aids. To find the HIWAS frequency in the vicinity of Area 1 on Figure 21, locate the VOR station symbol. The associated frequency box for the Elizabeth City VOR (ECG) clearly shows "117.1" with an "H" in the upper right corner, indicating that HIWAS is available on that frequency.

Question 39: (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

23 knots. (Correct answer)
19 knots.
26 knots.

Correct answer: 23 knots.

The correct answer is C because, using the wind component chart (Figure 36), the angle between the wind (220°) and Runway 18 (180°) is 40 degrees. By locating the intersection of the 30-knot total wind velocity arc and the 40-degree angle line on the chart, and then reading horizontally to the headwind component scale, a value of approximately 23 knots is obtained. Options A and B represent incorrect readings or calculations from the chart.

Question 40: Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

the controlling agency.
Air Traffic Control.
all pilots. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: all pilots.

In an Alert Area, responsibility for collision avoidance rests with all pilots operating within that area. Alert Areas are designated for a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity, and while ATC may provide advisories, pilots are still primarily responsible for exercising extreme caution and maintaining vigilance through the 'see and avoid' principle. Neither the controlling agency nor Air Traffic Control relieves pilots of this fundamental responsibility.

Question 41: What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. (Correct answer)
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Correct answer: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

For VFR flight during daylight hours, 14 CFR Part 91.151(a) requires an airplane to carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and then to fly after that for at least 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. This fuel reserve ensures that the pilot has sufficient fuel to handle minor delays, unexpected diversions, or holding patterns without running critically low.

Question 42: What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. (Correct answer)
When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

Correct answer: The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

For most conventional tail aircraft, the horizontal stabilizer and elevator are positioned within the propeller slipstream. When power is reduced, the velocity of the slipstream over the tail decreases, which reduces the effectiveness of the elevator and the downwash on it. This reduction in tail-down force causes the nose to pitch down.

Question 43: True course is

course referenced to true north. (Correct answer)
the direction the nose is pointed.
the speed of the aircraft through the air.

Correct answer: course referenced to true north.

True course is defined as the intended path of an aircraft over the ground, measured in degrees clockwise from true north. It represents the geographical direction of travel, uncorrected for wind or magnetic influences.

Question 44: On a sectional chart, a blue segmented circle with a D inside indicates which type of airspace?

Military operations area
Restricted area
Class D airspace (Correct answer)
Class B airspace

Correct answer: Class D airspace

A blue segmented circle with the letter D marks Class D airspace, typically surrounding airports with operating control towers.

Question 45: (Refer to Figure 24, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1,283 feet MSL.
1,273 feet MSL. (Correct answer)
1,010 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 1,273 feet MSL.

To determine the minimum altitude needed, first identify the height of the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport in Figure 24, area 1. The obstacle's top is 773 feet MSL. To clear this obstacle by 500 feet, you must add 500 feet to its MSL height: 773 feet MSL + 500 feet = 1,273 feet MSL.

Question 46: What role does continuous improvement play in privacy & public safety considerations for FAA certified professionals?

It focuses exclusively on cost reduction
It drives ongoing enhancement of practices, processes, and outcomes through systematic evaluation (Correct answer)
It is optional and only necessary during certification renewal
It applies only to new professionals in their first year

Correct answer: It drives ongoing enhancement of practices, processes, and outcomes through systematic evaluation

Continuous improvement is fundamental to professional practice in privacy & public safety considerations, involving regular evaluation, feedback integration, and process enhancement to maintain high standards.

Question 47: Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

regardless of weather conditions. (Correct answer)
within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Correct answer: regardless of weather conditions.

At all towered airports, regardless of the airspace class (e.g., Class B, C, D) or prevailing weather conditions (VFR or IFR), pilots must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control (ATC) for landing or takeoff. This requirement is fundamental for safety and efficiency in busy airport environments. It ensures ATC can issue clearances, instructions, and traffic advisories to maintain an orderly flow of air traffic and prevent conflicts.

Question 48: A remote pilot notices that adding a heavier payload causes the drone's hover throttle to increase significantly. This primarily indicates:

Improved motor efficiency at higher loads
Greater power consumption that will shorten available flight time (Correct answer)
Battery voltage is unaffected by hover throttle changes
The drone is operating outside its weight class

Correct answer: Greater power consumption that will shorten available flight time

Higher hover throttle means increased power draw, which directly reduces battery life and total flight time.

Question 49: The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

may be touch and go or full stop.
must be to a full stop. (Correct answer)
must be touch and go.

Correct answer: must be to a full stop.

To meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three full-stop landings within the preceding 90 days. Unlike nosewheel aircraft, touch-and-go landings are not sufficient for tailwheel aircraft due to the specific handling characteristics and increased challenge of full-stop landings, ensuring proficiency in this more demanding maneuver.

Question 50: Which cloud type is most associated with thunderstorm activity and should cause a drone pilot to land immediately?

Cumulonimbus (Correct answer)
Altocumulus
Cirrus
Stratus

Correct answer: Cumulonimbus

Cumulonimbus clouds are the thunderstorm cloud type and produce lightning, severe turbulence, hail, and heavy rain — all immediately dangerous to drone operations.

Question 51: When solving a wind problem on the wind side of the flight computer, the first information to enter on the wind side is

groundspeed.
true course.
the wind. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: the wind.

When using the wind side of a flight computer (like an E6B), the initial step is to input the wind information. You first set the wind direction under the true index and then mark the wind velocity up from the grommet. This establishes the wind vector, which is essential before calculating other parameters like true heading and groundspeed.

Question 52: During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
The other aircraft is flying away from you. (Correct answer)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

Correct answer: The other aircraft is flying away from you.

Aircraft navigation lights provide crucial information about another aircraft's orientation and movement at night. A steady white light is located on the tail of an aircraft, and a flashing red light is typically an anti-collision light often visible from the rear. Observing these lights ahead indicates you are seeing the tail of the other aircraft, which means it is flying away from you.

Question 53: When must a current certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession?

Only when passengers are carried.
When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
Anytime when acting as a pilot in command or as a required crewmember. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anytime when acting as a pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.3) clearly state that a pilot must have their appropriate pilot certificate and, if required, a current medical certificate in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. This requirement applies anytime the individual is acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember, ensuring their qualifications are verifiable.

Question 54: (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°44'00"W longitude?

Turtle Lake.
Johnson.
Makeeff. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Makeeff.

To find the airport located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°44'00"W longitude, locate these coordinates within area 2 of Figure 21. Follow the horizontal lines for latitude and the vertical lines for longitude. By carefully reading the chart and matching the coordinates, the airport identified is Makeeff.

Question 55: (Refer to Figure 19.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet. (Correct answer)
Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.
Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet.

Correct answer: Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.

On a Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, the jagged line symbol depicted in Utah represents areas of turbulence. The accompanying annotation "SFC-180" specifies that this turbulence is forecast from the surface (SFC) up to 18,000 feet MSL. A single jagged line generally indicates moderate turbulence, which pilots should be prepared for or plan to avoid.

Question 56: Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 1, 2016.
September 30, 2015.
September 30, 2016. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: September 30, 2016.

Transponder inspections, including the associated altitude reporting equipment, are required every 24 calendar months under 14 CFR Part 91.413. If the last inspection was performed on September 1, 2014, the 24-calendar-month period extends to the end of September 2016. Therefore, the next inspection must be completed no later than September 30, 2016.

Question 57: A remote pilot is hired to film a neighbor dispute by hovering outside a second-floor window of a private residence. What is the most appropriate action?

Decline the mission because it likely violates reasonable expectation of privacy (Correct answer)
Proceed if the flight remains above 400 ft AGL
Accept only if conducted during daylight hours
Fly the mission if the client provides written authorization

Correct answer: Decline the mission because it likely violates reasonable expectation of privacy

Individuals inside a private residence have a reasonable expectation of privacy, and capturing footage through windows can constitute a violation regardless of airspace legality.

Question 58: Hicks Airport (T67) northwest of Fort Worth Meacham International Airport (FTW), a Class B airspace floor.

4,000 ft. MSL (Correct answer)
2,000 ft. MSL
3,200 ft. MSL

Correct answer: 4,000 ft. MSL

To determine the Class B airspace floor near Hicks Airport (T67) northwest of Fort Worth Meacham International Airport (FTW), one must consult a sectional chart. Class B airspace is depicted by solid blue lines with numbers indicating the ceiling and floor in hundreds of feet MSL. By locating Hicks Airport on the sectional chart and identifying the Class B airspace segment it is near, the floor can be read, which is 4,000 feet MSL in that specific area.

Question 59: An ATC clearance provides

priority over all other traffic.
authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. (Correct answer)
adequate separation from all traffic.

Correct answer: authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

An Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed under specific conditions within controlled airspace. It is not a guarantee of separation from all traffic, nor does it provide priority; rather, it outlines the parameters (e.g., altitude, route, speed) under which the pilot can operate to ensure safe and orderly flow of air traffic. Pilots must comply with clearances unless an emergency dictates otherwise.

Question 60: How often must a remote pilot recertify their knowledge?

Every 24 months with recurrent training (Correct answer)
Every 12 months
Every 24 months
Every 6 months

Correct answer: Every 24 months with recurrent training

To maintain a valid Remote Pilot Certificate, pilots must demonstrate recurrent aeronautical knowledge every 24 calendar months. This can be achieved by passing an online recurrent training course provided by the FAA or by taking an initial or recurrent knowledge test at an approved testing center. This ensures pilots stay updated on regulations and best practices, maintaining a high level of safety and proficiency.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam

The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) exam certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially, ensuring safe and legal flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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