ELSO Adult ECMO Certification Exam β Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient on VA ECMO develops sudden bright red blood in the ECMO circuit tubing after a position change. This most likely represents:
- Accidental connection of the drainage and return lines (Correct answer)
- Air entrainment causing oxygenated appearance
- Oxygenator malfunction causing over-oxygenation
- Hemolysis producing red-tinged plasma
Correct answer: Accidental connection of the drainage and return lines
Bright red blood in the drainage line (which should be dark venous blood) suggests the drainage and return cannulas have been accidentally switched, a life-threatening error.
Question 2: Which statement correctly describes the role of intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) in VA-ECMO weaning?
- IABP provides additional LV unloading and hemodynamic support to facilitate ECMO weaning in borderline candidates (Correct answer)
- IABP is contraindicated in patients with femoral arterial ECMO cannulas
- IABP replaces the need for echocardiographic assessment during the weaning trial
- IABP increases ECMO afterload and should never be used concurrently
Correct answer: IABP provides additional LV unloading and hemodynamic support to facilitate ECMO weaning in borderline candidates
IABP augments diastolic coronary perfusion and reduces LV afterload, serving as a bridge device to facilitate VA-ECMO weaning in patients with marginal ventricular recovery.
Question 3: A sudden decrease in ECMO venous drainage pressure (more negative) with unchanged pump speed most likely indicates:
- Oxygenator thrombosis
- Hypovolemia or cannula malposition (Correct answer)
- Increased cardiac recovery
- Pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer: Hypovolemia or cannula malposition
Increasingly negative inlet pressures with unchanged RPM suggest inadequate venous return due to hypovolemia, tamponade, or cannula migration causing 'chatter.'
Question 4: What is the recommended ECMO blood flow rate (as % of cardiac output) to achieve adequate systemic support in cardiogenic shock?
- 100%
- 20β40%
- 60β80% (Correct answer)
- 10β20%
Correct answer: 60β80%
VA ECMO typically targets 60β80% of the patient's estimated cardiac output (approximately 3β4 L/min) to provide adequate systemic perfusion.
Question 5: What is the recommended target activated clotting time (ACT) range for most adult VV ECMO patients using unfractionated heparin?
- 120β140 seconds
- 160β200 seconds (Correct answer)
- 280β320 seconds
- 220β260 seconds
Correct answer: 160β200 seconds
Most centers target an ACT of 160β200 seconds on VV ECMO, balancing thrombosis prevention against bleeding risk.
Question 6: Which intervention is indicated when a VV-ECMO patient's sweep gas is at maximum FiO2 but SaO2 remains below 80%?
- Begin vasopressor therapy
- Evaluate for recirculation and consider cannula repositioning or flow adjustment (Correct answer)
- Increase heparin infusion
- Decrease PEEP immediately
Correct answer: Evaluate for recirculation and consider cannula repositioning or flow adjustment
Persistent hypoxia despite maximum sweep gas suggests high recirculation fraction; repositioning cannulas to increase the distance between drainage and return reduces recirculation.
Question 7: A patient on peripheral VA ECMO for acute myocardial infarction develops progressive pulmonary edema, a pulse pressure of less than 10 mmHg, and an echocardiogram showing a persistently closed aortic valve. These findings are most indicative of which critical complication?
- Aortic dissection from the arterial cannula
- Left ventricular (LV) distension (Correct answer)
- Massive pulmonary embolism
- Inadequate venous drainage from cannula malposition
Correct answer: Left ventricular (LV) distension
The combination of increased afterload from retrograde flow and a severely stunned myocardium can lead to an inability of the left ventricle to eject blood. This causes the aortic valve to remain closed, leading to a dangerous increase in LV end-diastolic pressure and volume (LV distension), which manifests as pulmonary edema and a non-pulsatile arterial waveform.
Question 8: Prolonged aminoglycoside use in ECMO patients requires monitoring for which organ-specific toxicity?
- Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (Correct answer)
- Bone marrow suppression
- Hepatotoxicity
- Pulmonary fibrosis
Correct answer: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycosides accumulate in renal tubular cells and cochlear tissue, causing dose-dependent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity requiring TDM.
Question 9: What physiological parameter best guides ECMO flow titration to ensure adequate oxygen delivery (DO2) in VA-ECMO?
- Arterial lactate concentration as a static threshold
- Urine output as a surrogate for cardiac output
- Mean arterial pressure alone
- Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) reflecting the balance between DO2 and VO2 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) reflecting the balance between DO2 and VO2
SvO2 integrates oxygen delivery and consumption; a falling SvO2 indicates tissues are extracting more oxygen to compensate for inadequate delivery, signaling the need to increase ECMO flow or hemoglobin.
Question 10: What does the 'clot amplitude at 10 minutes' (CA10) on ROTEM primarily reflect in ECMO patients?
- Platelet function and fibrin polymerization (Correct answer)
- Antithrombin levels
- Fibrinolytic activity only
- Heparin concentration
Correct answer: Platelet function and fibrin polymerization
CA10 on ROTEM reflects the combined contribution of platelet function and fibrin polymerization to clot strength at 10 minutes after clotting begins.
Question 11: What is the primary goal of parallel venoarterial-venous (VAV) ECMO configuration?
- Allow LV venting through the venous return limb
- Increase total circuit flow above single-pump capacity
- Treat both respiratory failure and cardiogenic shock simultaneously (Correct answer)
- Reduce circuit priming volume in pediatric patients
Correct answer: Treat both respiratory failure and cardiogenic shock simultaneously
VAV ECMO simultaneously addresses biventricular failure and severe respiratory failure by delivering oxygenated blood to both the pulmonary and systemic circulations.
Question 12: In post-cardiotomy cardiogenic shock, VA ECMO is initiated. After 72 hours, there is no evidence of cardiac recovery. What is the next appropriate step?
- Evaluate for advanced therapies: LVAD or cardiac transplantation (Correct answer)
- Reduce ECMO flow and accept lower MAP
- Continue VA ECMO indefinitely until recovery
- Convert to VV ECMO for lung recovery
Correct answer: Evaluate for advanced therapies: LVAD or cardiac transplantation
Absence of cardiac recovery at 72β96 hours should prompt evaluation for durable mechanical circulatory support (LVAD) or cardiac transplantation as bridge therapies.
Question 13: What is the physiological consequence of 'North-South syndrome' (Harlequin syndrome) in femoral VA-ECMO?
- The coronary arteries are preferentially perfused by ECMO flow
- Lower body receives poorly oxygenated blood from the ECMO circuit
- Cerebral autoregulation is abolished by retrograde flow
- Upper body receives poorly oxygenated blood from the native failing heart while lower body receives oxygenated ECMO blood (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Upper body receives poorly oxygenated blood from the native failing heart while lower body receives oxygenated ECMO blood
In femoral VA-ECMO, oxygenated retrograde ECMO flow may not reach the upper body if the recovering heart ejects deoxygenated blood antegrade, creating a watershed zone of hypoxemia in the upper extremities and brain.
Question 14: How does increased ECMO blood flow affect the recirculation fraction in VV-ECMO?
- Increases recirculation as more oxygenated blood is drawn back into the circuit (Correct answer)
- Has no effect on recirculation
- Decreases recirculation by improving drainage
- Eliminates recirculation entirely
Correct answer: Increases recirculation as more oxygenated blood is drawn back into the circuit
Higher ECMO flow increases recirculation because a larger volume of already-oxygenated blood returning to the right atrium is re-aspirated by the drainage cannula before reaching the pulmonary circulation.
Question 15: A VA ECMO patient develops white discoloration of the toes on the cannulated leg despite a functioning distal perfusion cannula. The next step is:
- Increase heparin dose to therapeutic PTT
- Reassess DPC position and flow with Doppler ultrasound (Correct answer)
- Apply topical vasodilators to the foot
- Remove the arterial cannula immediately
Correct answer: Reassess DPC position and flow with Doppler ultrasound
Persistent limb ischemia despite a DPC requires Doppler assessment to confirm cannula patency and adequate flow, as the DPC may be kinked, clotted, or malpositioned.
Question 16: The sweep gas flow rate in ECMO primarily controls which parameter?
- CO2 removal (Correct answer)
- Patient oxygenation
- Patient temperature
- Circuit blood flow
Correct answer: CO2 removal
Sweep gas flow (the gas flowing through the oxygenator fiber lumen) is the primary determinant of CO2 clearance from the blood.
Question 17: Which of the following clinical findings is the most direct and visually apparent indicator of significant intravascular hemolysis in a patient on ECMO?
- A progressive drop in the patient's platelet count.
- Dark, tea-colored urine in the urinary drainage bag. (Correct answer)
- An increase in the oxygenator pressure gradient.
- A gradual decrease in the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: Dark, tea-colored urine in the urinary drainage bag.
Significant intravascular hemolysis releases large amounts of cell-free hemoglobin into the plasma. This free hemoglobin is filtered by the kidneys, resulting in hemoglobinuria. This classically presents as dark reddish-brown or "tea-colored" urine and is often the most striking and earliest visual sign of severe hemolysis. While falling platelets, rising oxygenator pressures, and falling hematocrit can be associated with hemolysis, they are less specific and not as visually direct as hemoglobinuria.
Question 18: In percutaneous cannulation, serial dilation of the vessel is performed to:
- Gradually expand the access site to accommodate the final cannula (Correct answer)
- Flush the cannula with heparin solution
- Increase anticoagulation effect
- Test vessel compliance before ECMO initiation
Correct answer: Gradually expand the access site to accommodate the final cannula
Sequential dilators progressively enlarge the puncture site so the large-bore ECMO cannula can be inserted without tearing the vessel.
Question 19: Which ECMO circuit component is responsible for removing CO2 from the patient's blood?
- Oxygenator membrane (Correct answer)
- Servo-regulation sensor
- Bladder reservoir
- Centrifugal pump
Correct answer: Oxygenator membrane
The oxygenator membrane facilitates both oxygen delivery and CO2 removal via diffusion across hollow fiber membranes.
Question 20: Which clinical sign during a VA-ECMO low-flow weaning trial indicates right ventricular failure and should prompt aborting the trial?
- Rising central venous pressure with hepatomegaly and worsening systemic hypotension (Correct answer)
- Mild decrease in urine output from 80 to 60 mL/hr
- Sinus tachycardia at 100 bpm
- Widened pulse pressure on the arterial waveform
Correct answer: Rising central venous pressure with hepatomegaly and worsening systemic hypotension
Elevated CVP with hepatomegaly and systemic hypotension during flow reduction signals right ventricular failure, mandating return to full ECMO support.
Question 21: In a patient on ECMO with suspected HIT, a 4T score of 6 is calculated. What is the appropriate next step?
- Continue heparin and recheck platelet count in 24 hours
- Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin
- Reduce heparin dose by 50%
- Stop heparin immediately and start a direct thrombin inhibitor while confirmatory testing is sent (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Stop heparin immediately and start a direct thrombin inhibitor while confirmatory testing is sent
A 4T score of 6 represents high probability of HIT; heparin must be stopped immediately and an alternative anticoagulant started while awaiting confirmatory anti-PF4 antibody results.
Question 22: Which parameter should be checked when a VV ECMO patient receiving therapeutic anticoagulation unexpectedly develops widespread circuit clotting?
- D-dimer concentration
- Protein C and S levels
- Antithrombin III (AT-III) level (Correct answer)
- Factor V Leiden mutation status
Correct answer: Antithrombin III (AT-III) level
Heparin requires antithrombin III to exert its anticoagulant effect; AT-III deficiency causes heparin resistance and circuit thrombosis despite therapeutic dosing.
Question 23: When weaning VV-ECMO, the clinician assesses readiness by:
- Removing the oxygenator from the circuit while maintaining pump flow
- Clamping the venous cannula and monitoring SvO2
- Reducing sweep gas flow to zero and observing native gas exchange on the ventilator (Correct answer)
- Measuring cardiac output with a pulmonary artery catheter
Correct answer: Reducing sweep gas flow to zero and observing native gas exchange on the ventilator
A VV-ECMO weaning trial involves turning sweep gas to zero so the oxygenator is bypassed functionally, allowing assessment of whether the native lungs can sustain adequate gas exchange.
Question 24: Which of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor commonly used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients on ECMO who have confirmed Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
- Bivalirudin (Correct answer)
- Fondaparinux
- Clopidogrel
- Warfarin
Correct answer: Bivalirudin
Bivalirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is frequently used as a first-line alternative to heparin in patients with HIT. It directly binds to thrombin to prevent fibrin formation and does not require antithrombin for its effect. Warfarin is an oral medication unsuitable for acute ECMO. Fondaparinux is a Factor Xa inhibitor and clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent.
Question 25: Which of the following findings is the most reliable indicator of sufficient myocardial recovery to begin a weaning trial from VA ECMO?
- The ability to decrease the sweep gas flow to zero without a rise in PaCO2
- Consistent arterial line pulsatility and an LV outflow tract VTI > 10 cm on echocardiography (Correct answer)
- A chest X-ray showing resolution of pulmonary edema
- Normalization of the patient's body temperature and white blood cell count
Correct answer: Consistent arterial line pulsatility and an LV outflow tract VTI > 10 cm on echocardiography
The primary goal of VA ECMO is cardiac support. The most reliable signs of cardiac recovery are the heart's ability to generate its own effective stroke volume. This is demonstrated by a return of consistent pulsatility on the arterial waveform and objective echocardiographic measures like the left ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral (LVOT VTI), with a value >10 cm indicating readiness to wean.
Question 26: When performing an emergency hand-crank during a centrifugal pump power failure, the specialist should:
- Maintain a minimum of 1.5β2 L/min flow to prevent circuit thrombosis and clamp lines if unable to hand-crank (Correct answer)
- Convert to a roller pump using backup tubing
- Administer a protamine dose to reverse anticoagulation
- Increase sweep gas to maximum FiO2 immediately
Correct answer: Maintain a minimum of 1.5β2 L/min flow to prevent circuit thrombosis and clamp lines if unable to hand-crank
During pump failure, maintaining minimal flow via hand-crank prevents stasis thrombosis; if hand-cranking is not feasible, clamping both limbs prevents backflow and air entrainment.
Question 27: In a patient on peripheral VA-ECMO, which monitoring site best reflects cerebral oxygenation?
- Pulse oximetry on the left foot
- Central venous oxygen saturation
- Right radial arterial blood gas (pre-mixing zone) (Correct answer)
- Femoral arterial line (ECMO return side)
Correct answer: Right radial arterial blood gas (pre-mixing zone)
The right radial artery reflects blood ejected from the native heart before it mixes with retrograde ECMO flow, providing the best estimate of oxygen delivery to the brain and coronary arteries.
Question 28: You respond to a call at a nursing home for an unresponsive 88-year-old male. When you arrive, you are unable to palpate a pulse. While you are preparing to start chest compression, your partner places the patient on the monitor. When you perform a rhythm check, you notice ventricular fibrillation. After giving epinephrine and defibrillations, you start transporting to the nearest hospital. Is this patient a good candidate for eCPR?
- Yes, this patient is a good candidate for eCPR.
- Yes, this patient is a good candidate for eCPR due to the administration of epinephrine.
- No, this patient is not a good candidate for eCPR due to age and residing in a nursing home. (Correct answer)
- No, this patient is not a good candidate for eCPR due to the presence of ventricular fibrillation.
Correct answer: No, this patient is not a good candidate for eCPR due to age and residing in a nursing home.
Explanation: <br> No, this patient would not be a good candidate for ECPR (refractory arrest, βECMO Alertβ). The patient is excluded due to age and residing in a nursing home. As a reference, ECMO for any indication is not recommended for patients older than 75 years old.
Question 29: Which hemodynamic goal during a VA-ECMO weaning trial best predicts successful decannulation?
- CVP < 5 mmHg and PCWP < 8 mmHg at full flow
- Heart rate < 60 bpm with no vasopressor support
- MAP > 80 mmHg on high-dose norepinephrine at full ECMO flow
- Maintaining MAP > 65 mmHg on low-dose vasopressors with ECMO flow β€ 1.5 L/min (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintaining MAP > 65 mmHg on low-dose vasopressors with ECMO flow β€ 1.5 L/min
Hemodynamic stability with minimal vasopressor support at low ECMO flows demonstrates sufficient native cardiac output to sustain perfusion.
Question 30: Which cannulation strategy is preferred when ECPR is performed during active CPR in a pediatric patient under 10 kg?
- Neck (carotid-jugular) cannulation (Correct answer)
- Subclavian artery cannulation
- Transcaval approach
- Femoral-femoral VA-ECMO
Correct answer: Neck (carotid-jugular) cannulation
Carotid artery and internal jugular vein cannulation is the preferred approach in small pediatric patients due to vessel size limitations at the femoral site.
Question 31: Which of the following is a standard, non-invasive, continuous monitoring modality used for the early detection of cerebral malperfusion or ischemic events in an adult patient on VA ECMO?
- Daily transcranial Doppler (TCD) ultrasounds
- Continuous electroencephalography (EEG)
- Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) for cerebral oximetry (Correct answer)
- Serial serum S100B protein measurements
Correct answer: Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) for cerebral oximetry
Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) is a non-invasive technology that continuously monitors regional cerebral oxygen saturation (rSO2) at the bedside. It allows for real-time detection of imbalances in cerebral oxygen delivery and consumption, serving as an early warning for potential ischemic or hypoxic brain injury, which is a significant risk for patients on VA ECMO.
Question 32: Which sign on physical examination specifically suggests cannula-site venous thrombosis in a femoral ECMO patient?
- Redness at the cannula exit wound only
- Unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and discoloration distal to the cannula site (Correct answer)
- Systemic fever above 38.5Β°C
- Bilateral ankle edema
Correct answer: Unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and discoloration distal to the cannula site
Unilateral swelling, warmth, and discoloration of the limb distal to the femoral cannula indicate deep vein thrombosis or limb ischemia from venous outflow obstruction.
Question 33: What is the primary hemodynamic difference between VA-ECMO and VV-ECMO?
- VV-ECMO increases afterload while VA-ECMO reduces it
- VV-ECMO requires arterial cannulation
- VA-ECMO provides both cardiac and respiratory support while VV-ECMO provides respiratory support only (Correct answer)
- VA-ECMO can only be used in pediatric patients
Correct answer: VA-ECMO provides both cardiac and respiratory support while VV-ECMO provides respiratory support only
VA-ECMO bypasses both the heart and lungs providing cardiorespiratory support, whereas VV-ECMO only supports gas exchange with no direct cardiac output augmentation.
Question 34: What is the most common cannulation site for peripheral VA ECMO in adults?
- Femoral vein and radial artery
- Femoral vein and femoral artery (Correct answer)
- Right internal jugular vein and subclavian artery
- Femoral vein and axillary artery
Correct answer: Femoral vein and femoral artery
Femoral vein to femoral artery cannulation is the most common approach for peripheral VA ECMO due to accessibility and speed of insertion.
Question 35: A patient on ECMO develops a new right pleural effusion with progressive respiratory failure. The most appropriate diagnostic step is:
- Obtain a ventilation-perfusion scan
- Thoracentesis with fluid sent for analysis including triglycerides (Correct answer)
- Increase ECMO flows and sweep gas
- Perform a contrast CT chest
Correct answer: Thoracentesis with fluid sent for analysis including triglycerides
Thoracentesis both diagnoses and treats the effusion; triglyceride analysis helps identify chylothorax, a recognized ECMO complication from superior vena cava or thoracic duct involvement.
Question 36: Why is systemic anticoagulation typically administered before the first dilator is placed during ECMO cannulation?
- To increase cardiac output during the procedure
- To prevent clot formation on instrumentation and in the cannula (Correct answer)
- To reduce vasospasm at the puncture site
- To lower blood pressure for easier vessel access
Correct answer: To prevent clot formation on instrumentation and in the cannula
Heparin is given prior to dilation to prevent thrombus formation on the guidewire, dilators, and cannula surfaces during insertion.
Question 37: Which coagulation factor is most significantly consumed during ECMO due to continuous contact with the circuit surface?
- Factor V
- Factor XIII
- Fibrinogen (Correct answer)
- Factor VIII
Correct answer: Fibrinogen
Fibrinogen is rapidly consumed during ECMO due to adsorption onto circuit surfaces and ongoing fibrinolysis, making it a critical monitoring parameter.
Question 38: A patient on ECMO develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which anticoagulant is preferred as a replacement?
- Argatroban or bivalirudin (Correct answer)
- Fondaparinux
- Low-molecular-weight heparin
- Warfarin
Correct answer: Argatroban or bivalirudin
Direct thrombin inhibitors such as argatroban or bivalirudin are the preferred alternatives when HIT is confirmed during ECMO, as all heparin products must be avoided.
Question 39: Hemolysis in an ECMO circuit is best monitored by measuring:
- Activated clotting time and anti-Xa levels
- Plasma-free hemoglobin and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels (Correct answer)
- Post-membrane PO2 and PCO2
- Serum potassium and sodium levels
Correct answer: Plasma-free hemoglobin and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels
Plasma-free hemoglobin and LDH are direct markers of red cell destruction, indicating mechanical trauma from pump cavitation, high negative pressures, or circuit thrombosis.
Question 40: What is the target range for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) in most adult ECMO protocols?
- 60-80 seconds (Correct answer)
- 20-40 seconds
- 150-180 seconds
- 100-120 seconds
Correct answer: 60-80 seconds
Most adult ECMO programs target an aPTT of 60-80 seconds to balance clot prevention within the circuit against systemic bleeding risk from anticoagulation.
Question 41: Which factor most reliably predicts the ability to successfully wean a patient from VV ECMO?
- Return of normal cardiac ejection fraction
- Normalization of chest X-ray
- Resolution of systemic inflammatory markers
- Maintenance of adequate SpO2 during a spontaneous breathing trial with sweep gas off (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maintenance of adequate SpO2 during a spontaneous breathing trial with sweep gas off
A weaning trial with sweep gas reduced or off tests the native lung's ability to maintain gas exchange independently, which is the best predictor of successful decannulation.
Question 42: Differential hypoxia (Harlequin syndrome) in VA-ECMO via femoral cannulation is characterized by:
- Oxygenated upper body from native lungs and hypoxic lower body from ECMO
- Hypoxia in the lower extremities only
- Bilateral upper and lower extremity cyanosis
- Oxygenated lower body from ECMO and hypoxic upper body from native lungs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Oxygenated lower body from ECMO and hypoxic upper body from native lungs
In femoral VA-ECMO, oxygenated ECMO blood enters the aorta retrogradely and perfuses the lower body, while the upper body receives deoxygenated blood from the recovering but still-dysfunctional native lungs.
Question 43: Which echocardiographic finding would prompt emergent LV venting in a VA ECMO patient?
- Hyperdynamic LV with LVEF >55%
- Spontaneous echo contrast in the LA
- Severely dilated, non-contracting LV with mitral regurgitation (Correct answer)
- Small pericardial effusion without tamponade
Correct answer: Severely dilated, non-contracting LV with mitral regurgitation
A severely dilated, non-contracting LV with MR indicates LV distension that can cause pulmonary edema and myocardial injury, requiring urgent venting.
Question 44: The pre-pump (inlet) pressure on an ECMO circuit is characteristically:
- Positive, reflecting aortic backpressure
- Equal to central venous pressure
- Negative, reflecting the suction generated by the drainage cannula (Correct answer)
- Atmospheric (zero) during normal operation
Correct answer: Negative, reflecting the suction generated by the drainage cannula
The inlet (drainage) limb operates at subatmospheric (negative) pressure as the pump generates suction to pull blood from the venous circulation.
Question 45: A patient being weaned from VA-ECMO develops LV distension confirmed by echo. Before decannulation, the priority intervention is:
- Increase ECMO flow to decompress the ventricle
- Insert an Impella or intra-aortic balloon pump to unload the LV (Correct answer)
- Reduce vasopressor support to decrease afterload
- Perform urgent aortic valve replacement
Correct answer: Insert an Impella or intra-aortic balloon pump to unload the LV
LV distension during VA-ECMO unloading failure requires a dedicated LV unloading device (Impella or IABP) to prevent pulmonary edema and myocardial injury.
Question 46: In neonatal ECMO for meconium aspiration syndrome, the most important criterion indicating readiness to wean is:
- Birth weight exceeding 3.5 kg
- Decreasing oxygen requirement and improving native lung compliance on ventilator (Correct answer)
- Normalization of serum lactate to < 1.0 mmol/L
- Chest X-ray clearance of all opacities
Correct answer: Decreasing oxygen requirement and improving native lung compliance on ventilator
Improved pulmonary compliance and reduced FiO2 requirement on the ventilator indicate recovery of native lung function in neonates.
Question 47: What is the most common indication for ECMO in neonates in the United States?
- Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) (Correct answer)
- Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
- Congenital heart disease
- Group B Streptococcal sepsis
Correct answer: Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Meconium aspiration syndrome causing severe respiratory failure and pulmonary hypertension is the most frequent neonatal ECMO indication in the US.
Question 48: Which component of the ECMO circuit is directly responsible for both oxygenating the blood and removing carbon dioxide?
- Blender
- Heat exchanger
- Centrifugal pump
- Membrane oxygenator (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Membrane oxygenator
The membrane oxygenator, also called the membrane lung, is the component that performs gas exchange. It contains a semipermeable membrane that separates the blood path from the gas path, allowing oxygen to diffuse into the blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse out, mimicking the function of the alveoli in the lungs.
Question 49: A VV ECMO patient has adequate oxygenation but develops progressive hypercapnia despite maximum sweep gas settings. What is the next step?
- Administer sodium bicarbonate
- Evaluate for membrane oxygenator clot or plasma leak (Correct answer)
- Convert to VA ECMO
- Increase native ventilator respiratory rate
Correct answer: Evaluate for membrane oxygenator clot or plasma leak
Plasma leak or thrombus within the oxygenator impairs gas exchange efficiency, causing CO2 retention despite maximal sweep settings.
Question 50: A pediatric ECMO patient on heparin develops catheter-site bleeding with an ACT of 190 seconds and platelet count of 110,000/ΞΌL. What additional test helps identify platelet dysfunction as a contributor?
- Anti-Xa level
- Prothrombin time/INR
- Fibrinogen level
- Platelet function assay (PFA-100) or TEG platelet mapping (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Platelet function assay (PFA-100) or TEG platelet mapping
Platelet function assays or TEG platelet mapping can identify acquired platelet dysfunction from ECMO circuit exposure even when platelet count appears adequate.
Question 51: A patient on VV-ECMO develops worsening hypercapnia despite maximal sweep gas flow. What is the most likely explanation?
- Plasma leak into the gas phase of the oxygenator
- Excessive recirculation washing out CO2
- Patient's metabolic rate has decreased
- Oxygenator thrombosis reducing effective membrane surface area (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Oxygenator thrombosis reducing effective membrane surface area
Oxygenator thrombosis progressively reduces functional membrane surface area, impairing both oxygen transfer and CO2 elimination despite maximal sweep gas flows.
Question 52: When selecting cannula size for a patient requiring VA ECMO, the primary goal is to choose a size that allows for:
- The lowest possible prime volume for the circuit.
- A target blood flow equivalent to a cardiac index of 2.2-2.5 L/min/m2 without causing excessive shear stress. (Correct answer)
- The longest duration of use without needing to be changed.
- The easiest and quickest possible insertion.
Correct answer: A target blood flow equivalent to a cardiac index of 2.2-2.5 L/min/m2 without causing excessive shear stress.
The fundamental goal of VA ECMO is to provide adequate circulatory support. Cannulas must be large enough to achieve a target blood flow that meets the patient's metabolic demands (typically a cardiac index of 2.2-2.5 L/min/m2), but not so large as to cause significant vascular injury or so small that high pressures lead to hemolysis from shear stress.
Question 53: Which ECMO configuration carries the highest risk of arterial thromboembolism due to retrograde aortic blood flow interactions?
- VAV-ECMO configuration
- VV-ECMO with bicaval dual-lumen cannula
- VA-ECMO with femoral artery return cannula (Correct answer)
- VV-ECMO with right internal jugular cannulation
Correct answer: VA-ECMO with femoral artery return cannula
Femoral VA-ECMO creates a watershed zone where oxygenated retrograde ECMO flow meets anterograde native cardiac output, increasing thrombus and watershed infarction risk.
Question 54: In venoarterial ECMO, retrograde flow through the femoral artery can cause what phenomenon in patients with recovering cardiac function?
- Left ventricular thrombus
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Venous air embolism
- Differential hypoxia (Harlequin syndrome) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Differential hypoxia (Harlequin syndrome)
When the recovering heart ejects deoxygenated blood that meets retrograde ECMO flow in the aorta, the upper body may receive hypoxic blood β Harlequin syndrome.
Question 55: Which hemodynamic finding on a pulmonary artery catheter would indicate left ventricular distension in a VA-ECMO patient?
- High PCWP with low cardiac output (Correct answer)
- High mixed venous saturation only
- Low central venous pressure
- Low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
Correct answer: High PCWP with low cardiac output
Elevated PCWP with low native cardiac output in VA-ECMO indicates LV distension from afterload mismatch, potentially requiring LV unloading.
Question 56: Which intervention most directly reduces recirculation in a patient on dual-lumen bicaval VV ECMO?
- Increasing sweep gas flow
- Increasing anticoagulation
- Raising ECMO blood flow
- Repositioning the return jet away from the drainage port (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Repositioning the return jet away from the drainage port
Directing the return jet toward the tricuspid valve and away from the drainage port minimizes recirculation of oxygenated blood.
Question 57: Which condition is ECMO primarily used for in respiratory failure?
- Asthma exacerbation
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- Pneumonia
- Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Explanation: <br> ECMO is commonly used in cases of ARDS where conventional mechanical ventilation is inadequate to oxygenate the blood.
Question 58: The centrifugal pump used in modern ECMO circuits generates flow by:
- Pneumatic pressure applied to a blood sac
- Magnetically levitated or bearing-mounted impeller creating a pressure gradient via centrifugal force (Correct answer)
- Electromagnetic induction in a metal chamber
- Sequential compression of tubing by rotating rollers
Correct answer: Magnetically levitated or bearing-mounted impeller creating a pressure gradient via centrifugal force
Centrifugal pumps use a spinning impeller (constrained or magnetically levitated) to impart kinetic energy to blood, generating flow through centrifugal force.
Question 59: A patient on Veno-Arterial (VA) ECMO with femoral artery cannulation develops signs of limb ischemia, including coolness and pallor in the cannulated leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
- Increase the ECMO pump flow to improve perfusion.
- Elevate the affected limb above the level of the heart.
- Place a distal perfusion cannula (DPC) in the ipsilateral femoral artery. (Correct answer)
- Administer a bolus of an anticoagulant.
Correct answer: Place a distal perfusion cannula (DPC) in the ipsilateral femoral artery.
Femoral artery cannulation for VA ECMO can obstruct antegrade blood flow, leading to limb ischemia. A distal perfusion cannula (DPC) is inserted antegrade into the artery distal to the main ECMO cannula to provide oxygenated blood flow to the limb, directly addressing the cause of the ischemia.
Question 60: What hemostatic change occurs specifically during the transition from VA-ECMO to VV-ECMO configuration in a recovering cardiac patient?
- Von Willebrand factor levels rapidly normalize within 1 hour
- Anticoagulation requirements double due to added circuit length
- Immediate normalization of all coagulation parameters
- Increased turbulence and shear from circuit reconfiguration may transiently worsen platelet consumption (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Increased turbulence and shear from circuit reconfiguration may transiently worsen platelet consumption
Circuit reconfiguration introduces turbulence and new surface contact areas, which can transiently increase platelet activation and consumption during and immediately after the transition.
Question 61: Succinylcholine use in critically ill ECMO patients carries a risk of life-threatening:
- Bronchospasm
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Prolonged paralysis due to circuit sequestration
- Hyperkalemia-induced cardiac arrest (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hyperkalemia-induced cardiac arrest
Critically ill patients often have upregulated acetylcholine receptors, and succinylcholine depolarization releases enough potassium to cause cardiac arrest.
Question 62: Which vasopressor is considered first-line for maintaining mean arterial pressure (MAP) in VA-ECMO patients with vasodilatory shock?
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine (Correct answer)
- Phenylephrine
- Epinephrine
Correct answer: Norepinephrine
Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in VA-ECMO due to its potent alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction with modest beta-1 activity.
Question 63: A patient on VA-ECMO develops a sudden drop in arterial line pressure with unchanged ECMO flows. What is the most likely cause?
- Pump thrombus
- Oxygenator failure
- Cardiac tamponade (Correct answer)
- Venous cannula migration
Correct answer: Cardiac tamponade
Cardiac tamponade reduces native cardiac output, causing a drop in arterial pulsatility and blood pressure despite maintained ECMO flow.
Question 64: During ECMO circuit change-out, the most critical step to prevent air embolism is:
- Ensuring all tubing connections are primed and bubble-free before unclamping (Correct answer)
- Converting from VV to VA configuration temporarily
- Administering a heparin bolus 30 minutes before the procedure
- Reducing pump speed to minimum RPM throughout the exchange
Correct answer: Ensuring all tubing connections are primed and bubble-free before unclamping
Any air introduced during circuit change-out can cause fatal embolism, so meticulous priming and de-airing of all new components is mandatory before reconnecting to the patient.
Question 65: What is the standard ICU blood glucose target for ECMO patients receiving insulin infusion therapy?
- 140β180 mg/dL (Correct answer)
- 100β140 mg/dL
- 180β220 mg/dL
- 60β100 mg/dL
Correct answer: 140β180 mg/dL
Current critical care guidelines recommend targeting blood glucose of 140β180 mg/dL to balance glycemic control with hypoglycemia risk.
Question 66: Serial chest X-rays in a VV-ECMO patient show progressive improvement in bilateral infiltrates. This finding suggests:
- Circuit recirculation
- Worsening ARDS
- Oxygenator failure
- Lung rest and potential recovery (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lung rest and potential recovery
Clearing bilateral infiltrates on serial imaging indicate lung rest from reduced ventilator settings enabled by ECMO, suggesting potential native lung recovery.
Question 67: What is the physiological rationale for targeting a lower 'lung-protective' ventilator strategy (ultra-protective ventilation) during VV-ECMO?
- ECMO eliminates the need for any ventilation
- Reduced ventilation decreases sweep gas requirements
- ECMO assumes gas exchange, allowing the lungs to rest and potentially recover from VILI (Correct answer)
- Lower ventilation reduces recirculation
Correct answer: ECMO assumes gas exchange, allowing the lungs to rest and potentially recover from VILI
With ECMO handling gas exchange, tidal volumes and pressures can be minimized to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) and promote lung recovery.
Question 68: What is the primary purpose of the raceway tubing in a centrifugal ECMO pump?
- To oxygenate blood passing through the circuit
- To house the heat exchanger coils
- To serve as the segment compressed by the pump head (Correct answer)
- To measure circuit flow via ultrasonic sensors
Correct answer: To serve as the segment compressed by the pump head
Raceway tubing is the specialized, crush-resistant segment that sits within a roller pump head and is repeatedly compressed to propel blood.
Question 69: Which ultrasound view is most useful for confirming guidewire position in the inferior vena cava during femoral venous cannulation?
- Subcostal or transesophageal bicaval view (Correct answer)
- Parasternal short-axis at the aortic valve
- Apical four-chamber
- Parasternal long-axis
Correct answer: Subcostal or transesophageal bicaval view
The subcostal or TEE bicaval view provides direct visualization of the guidewire and cannula tip within the IVC and right atrium.
Question 70: During femoral veno-arterial ECMO cannulation, what is the primary concern when selecting the arterial cannula size?
- Ensuring the cannula reaches the ascending aorta
- Matching cannula diameter to the patient's body weight only
- Selecting the largest cannula to reduce resistance
- Maximizing flow while minimizing distal limb ischemia risk (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maximizing flow while minimizing distal limb ischemia risk
Femoral arterial cannula selection balances adequate ECMO flow with preservation of native limb perfusion to prevent distal ischemia.
Question 71: A patient is placed on peripheral VA ECMO via the femoral artery and vein for cardiogenic shock. Which of the following cannulation-related complications is a direct consequence of the retrograde blood flow delivered by the arterial cannula?
- Limb ischemia in the cannulated leg.
- Increased left ventricular afterload. (Correct answer)
- Deep vein thrombosis in the non-cannulated leg.
- Recirculation between the arterial and venous cannulas.
Correct answer: Increased left ventricular afterload.
In peripheral VA ECMO, the arterial cannula returns blood into the femoral artery, creating retrograde flow up the aorta. This flow opposes the native ejection from the left ventricle, thereby increasing the pressure the LV must pump against (afterload). This can lead to LV distention, stasis, and pulmonary edema, especially in patients with poor ventricular function.
Question 72: During VV ECMO, a patient develops acute hemolysis (plasma-free hemoglobin >500 mg/dL). What is the FIRST action?
- Increase ECMO flow to reduce shear stress
- Administer intravenous haptoglobin
- Start plasmapheresis
- Inspect the circuit for thrombus, kinks, or high negative inlet pressure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Inspect the circuit for thrombus, kinks, or high negative inlet pressure
Hemolysis on ECMO is often caused by mechanical factors (thrombus, kinking, cavitation from excessive negative pressure), which must be identified and corrected first.
Question 73: What is the preferred alternative anticoagulant for ECMO patients diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
- Warfarin
- Bivalirudin (Correct answer)
- Rivaroxaban
- Fondaparinux
Correct answer: Bivalirudin
Bivalirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor that does not cross-react with HIT antibodies and is the preferred heparin alternative during ECMO.
Question 74: What is the typical target activated clotting time (ACT) range during standard ECMO anticoagulation?
- 300β400 seconds
- 90β120 seconds
- 60β80 seconds
- 180β220 seconds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 180β220 seconds
Most ECMO centers target an ACT of 180β220 seconds to balance thrombosis prevention in the circuit against bleeding risk in the patient.
Question 75: During ECMO, the team notices pink frothy fluid in the sweep gas exhaust. What does this indicate?
- Air leak in the venous drainage cannula
- Normal condensation in the sweep gas line
- Retrograde flow in the circuit
- Plasma leak through the oxygenator membrane (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Plasma leak through the oxygenator membrane
Pink frothy fluid in the sweep gas exhaust indicates plasma leakage across the oxygenator membrane, which can reduce gas exchange efficiency and require oxygenator replacement.
Question 76: Argatroban, used in HIT patients on ECMO, is monitored using which laboratory test?
- Activated clotting time (ACT) or aPTT (Correct answer)
- Thromboelastography (TEG) only
- Platelet function assay
- Anti-Xa level
Correct answer: Activated clotting time (ACT) or aPTT
Argatroban is monitored via aPTT (target 1.5β3Γ baseline) or ACT, as it directly inhibits thrombin and prolongs clot-based assays.
Question 77: What is the primary advantage of a percutaneous over a surgical cutdown approach for ECMO cannulation in most adults?
- Faster access, lower bleeding risk at the site, and no surgical wound (Correct answer)
- Larger cannulas can be placed percutaneously
- Percutaneous cannulas are easier to remove at decannulation
- Surgical cutdown provides worse visualization of vessel anatomy
Correct answer: Faster access, lower bleeding risk at the site, and no surgical wound
Percutaneous Seldinger-based cannulation is faster in an emergency, avoids a surgical incision, and is associated with lower local complication rates in experienced hands.
Question 78: Which anticoagulation monitoring strategy is most commonly used during VV ECMO in adults?
- Thromboelastography only
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) with unfractionated heparin (Correct answer)
- Anti-Xa levels with low-molecular-weight heparin
- INR monitoring every 6 hours
Correct answer: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) with unfractionated heparin
Unfractionated heparin titrated to aPTT (typically 60β80 seconds) is the most widely used anticoagulation strategy in adult VV ECMO.
Question 79: Which packed red blood cell (pRBC) transfusion threshold is commonly targeted in stable VV-ECMO patients without active hemorrhage?
- Hgb <10 g/dL (Correct answer)
- Hgb <12 g/dL
- Hgb <14 g/dL
- Hgb <7 g/dL
Correct answer: Hgb <10 g/dL
Most ECMO centers target hemoglobin >10 g/dL to optimize oxygen delivery through the circuit to the patient.
Question 80: What is the most common cause of heparin resistance in ECMO patients?
- High fibrinogen levels
- Antithrombin III deficiency (Correct answer)
- Elevated Factor VIII levels
- Protein C deficiency
Correct answer: Antithrombin III deficiency
Antithrombin III (AT III) deficiency is the most common cause of heparin resistance in ECMO patients, as heparin requires AT III to exert its anticoagulant effect.
Question 81: What is the significance of a widening pulse pressure on the arterial line of a VA ECMO patient over 48 hours?
- Circuit recirculation causing venous mixing
- Sepsis-induced peripheral vasodilation
- Worsening aortic regurgitation from the arterial cannula
- Evidence of myocardial recovery with improving native cardiac output (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Evidence of myocardial recovery with improving native cardiac output
Widening pulse pressure indicates the native heart is generating increasing stroke volume, which is a positive sign of myocardial recovery during VA ECMO.
Question 82: A VA-ECMO patient on 80% support develops left ventricular distension on echocardiogram with worsening pulmonary edema. The preferred intervention is:
- Place an Impella or intra-aortic balloon pump for LV venting (Correct answer)
- Reduce ECMO flows to allow more native ejection
- Increase ECMO flows to further unload the heart
- Initiate aggressive diuresis alone
Correct answer: Place an Impella or intra-aortic balloon pump for LV venting
LV distension on VA-ECMO results from increased afterload and inadequate LV ejection; adding a direct LV vent such as an Impella or IABP is the definitive treatment.
Question 83: A patient with morbid obesity (BMI 55) requires ECPR. What circuit modification is most commonly necessary?
- Smaller oxygenator to reduce resistance
- Larger cannula sizes with higher flow-rated tubing (Correct answer)
- Removal of the heat exchanger
- Reduced heparin dosing
Correct answer: Larger cannula sizes with higher flow-rated tubing
Morbidly obese patients require larger cannulas and higher flow-rated tubing to achieve adequate perfusion for their increased body mass.
Question 84: A patient is supported with a dual-lumen single cannula via the right internal jugular vein for VV ECMO. The clinical team notes that the pre-membrane (drainage) oxygen saturation is rising, while the patient's systemic arterial saturation (SpO2) is simultaneously falling. This pattern is most indicative of:
- Significant recirculation due to cannula malposition. (Correct answer)
- Impending oxygenator failure.
- Improving native lung function.
- Worsening right ventricular failure.
Correct answer: Significant recirculation due to cannula malposition.
This clinical picture is the classic sign of significant recirculation. It occurs when the oxygenated blood being returned through the reinfusion port is immediately drawn back into the drainage port of the cannula without circulating through the patient's body. This leads to progressively 'more red' blood entering the circuit (higher pre-membrane saturation) while less oxygenated blood reaches the patient, causing systemic hypoxemia (falling SpO2). Improving lung function would raise SpO2. Oxygenator failure would cause post-membrane saturation to fall.
Question 85: How does increasing ECMO blood flow affect plasma-free hemoglobin levels?
- Higher flows reduce hemolysis by decreasing turbulence at the pump inlet
- Flow rate has no effect; hemolysis depends entirely on anticoagulation status
- Higher flows decrease hemolysis by reducing suction pressure on red cells
- Hemolysis increases with higher rpm as centrifugal pump shear stress rises proportionally (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hemolysis increases with higher rpm as centrifugal pump shear stress rises proportionally
Centrifugal pump rpm and shear forces increase with flow; higher shear stress exceeds red cell membrane tolerance, causing progressive mechanical hemolysis that correlates with pump speed.
Question 86: A VV ECMO patient requires a blood transfusion. Which hemoglobin threshold is most appropriate for initiating transfusion in a stable patient?
- Hgb < 8 g/dL (Correct answer)
- Hgb < 12 g/dL
- Hgb < 7 g/dL
- Hgb < 10 g/dL
Correct answer: Hgb < 8 g/dL
Most ECMO centers use a hemoglobin threshold of 8 g/dL for transfusion, as higher hemoglobin improves oxygen-carrying capacity on ECMO support.
Question 87: Air is detected in the ECMO circuit approaching the patient. The immediate response is to:
- Administer 100% FiO2 to absorb the air
- Increase pump speed to push the air through quickly
- Clamp the arterial limb and stop the pump immediately (Correct answer)
- Tilt the patient into Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: Clamp the arterial limb and stop the pump immediately
Clamping the arterial limb and stopping the pump immediately prevents air from entering the patient's circulation and causing a fatal air embolism.
Question 88: On VV ECMO, a patient's SaO2 is 88% with ECMO flow at 5 L/min. The native cardiac output is estimated at 8 L/min. What is the approximate recirculation fraction?
- 10%
- 50%
- 25%
- 37% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 37%
Recirculation fraction = (ECMO flow β effective flow) / ECMO flow; with total venous return mixed with ECMO flow, approximately 37% recirculation yields this oxygen delivery.
Question 89: Which intervention is most appropriate for managing harlequin syndrome in VA-ECMO?
- Add a second venous drainage cannula to convert to VAV configuration or place the return cannula in the right subclavian/axillary artery (Correct answer)
- Increase ECMO flow rate to maximum
- Administer high-dose vasopressors
- Reduce sweep gas FiO2 to match native cardiac output oxygen content
Correct answer: Add a second venous drainage cannula to convert to VAV configuration or place the return cannula in the right subclavian/axillary artery
Converting to a VAV configuration or using an upper-body arterial return ensures oxygenated blood reaches the coronary and cerebral circulations despite poor native cardiac function.
Question 90: In patients who undergo ECPR for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA), which factor is most strongly associated with favorable neurological outcomes?
- A short 'low-flow' time (duration of CPR until ECMO initiation). (Correct answer)
- Total dose of epinephrine administered by EMS.
- The use of a mechanical CPR device during transport.
- Successful intubation in the field on the first attempt.
Correct answer: A short 'low-flow' time (duration of CPR until ECMO initiation).
The duration of the low-flow state (the time from the start of CPR to the establishment of ECMO flow) is one of the most powerful predictors of survival with good neurological outcome in ECPR. Shorter durations imply less time with suboptimal cerebral perfusion, reducing the risk of anoxic brain injury. ELSO guidelines suggest a goal of establishing ECMO flow within 60 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest.
Question 91: What is the physiological basis for using prone positioning concurrently with VV-ECMO in severe ARDS?
- Prone positioning reduces ECMO recirculation by changing cannula orientation
- Prone positioning lowers intrathoracic pressure, increasing ECMO venous drainage
- Prone positioning prevents oxygenator thrombosis by reducing blood viscosity
- Prone positioning redistributes ventilation-perfusion matching and reduces dorsal alveolar overdistension, complementing ECMO's gas exchange support (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Prone positioning redistributes ventilation-perfusion matching and reduces dorsal alveolar overdistension, complementing ECMO's gas exchange support
Prone positioning recruits dorsal lung regions, improves V/Q matching, and reduces cyclic alveolar stress, providing additive benefit to VV-ECMO's extracorporeal gas exchange in ARDS.
Question 92: During ECMO, a sudden rise in the pre-membrane pressure with a normal post-membrane pressure indicates:
- Arterial cannula obstruction
- Clot formation within the oxygenator fiber bundle (Correct answer)
- Pump head thrombosis
- Venous drainage line kink
Correct answer: Clot formation within the oxygenator fiber bundle
A rising gradient between pre- and post-membrane pressures signals increasing resistance within the oxygenator, most commonly due to clot accumulation in the fiber bundle.
Question 93: A patient on VV ECMO requires Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT). The CRRT circuit is initiated, drawing blood from a pre-pump access port and returning it post-oxygenator. Shortly after initiation, the ECMO circuit's pre-membrane (access) pressure becomes significantly more negative, and the venous line begins to chatter. What is the most probable cause?
- The CRRT machine's ultrafiltration rate is too high, causing patient hypovolemia. (Correct answer)
- A large clot has formed in the ECMO oxygenator.
- The sweep gas flow on the ECMO circuit was accidentally increased.
- The CRRT machine is adding excess volume to the circuit.
Correct answer: The CRRT machine's ultrafiltration rate is too high, causing patient hypovolemia.
Aggressive fluid removal (ultrafiltration) by the CRRT machine can rapidly deplete the patient's circulating volume. This resulting hypovolemia leads to insufficient venous return to fill the ECMO circuit, causing the drainage cannula to suck against the vessel walls. This is manifested as an increasingly negative pre-membrane pressure and visible 'chatter' in the line.
Question 94: A patient on ECMO has a platelet count that drops from 180,000 to 30,000 over 48 hours. The MOST likely cause in this clinical context is:
- Sepsis-related bone marrow suppression
- Dilutional thrombocytopenia from transfusions
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
- ECMO circuit consumption (Correct answer)
Correct answer: ECMO circuit consumption
Platelet consumption due to contact activation within the ECMO circuit is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in ECMO patients.
Question 95: Cerebral regional oxygen saturation (rSO2) measured by NIRS falls below 50% in an ECMO patient. The first intervention should be:
- Perform emergent head CT
- Discontinue sedation
- Assess and optimize ECMO flow, MAP, hemoglobin, and arterial CO2 (Correct answer)
- Increase vasopressor dose
Correct answer: Assess and optimize ECMO flow, MAP, hemoglobin, and arterial CO2
A rSO2 below 50% signals cerebral oxygen debt; optimizing DO2 determinants β ECMO flow, mean arterial pressure, hemoglobin, and PaCO2 β is the first-line response.
Question 96: After ECPR for drug-induced cardiac arrest, weaning should be attempted when which criterion is met?
- Lactate normalizes below 4 mmol/L
- Patient regains consciousness
- The causative drug has been metabolized and cardiac function recovers (Correct answer)
- 48 hours have elapsed since arrest
Correct answer: The causative drug has been metabolized and cardiac function recovers
Weaning is appropriate once the toxic drug is metabolized and intrinsic cardiac function demonstrates recovery on echo.
Question 97: Following a circuit change for oxygenator failure, the ECMO specialist notes the new circuit's post-membrane pO2 is 500 mmHg on FiO2 1.0. This confirms:
- Excessive sweep gas is causing hypocapnia
- Recirculation is now occurring
- The new oxygenator is functioning appropriately (Correct answer)
- The patient has developed a pneumothorax
Correct answer: The new oxygenator is functioning appropriately
A post-membrane pO2 of approximately 500 mmHg on 100% FiO2 is the expected result of a fully functional oxygenator, confirming successful circuit exchange.
Question 98: Inlet pressure (P-in) monitoring on the venous drainage limb of ECMO is important because extreme negative pressures can cause:
- Oxygenator plasma leakage
- Hyperthermia from increased pump work
- Arterial hypertension and increased cardiac afterload
- Hemolysis, cavitation, and venous collapse around the cannula tip (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hemolysis, cavitation, and venous collapse around the cannula tip
Excessive negative suction pressures on the venous drainage side cause red cell destruction, gas bubble formation (cavitation), and vessel wall collapse at the cannula.
Question 99: In ECMO management, 'chatter' of the venous drainage cannula or tubing typically indicates:
- Air embolism in the arterial limb
- Oxygenator membrane failure
- Hypovolemia or inadequate venous return to the circuit (Correct answer)
- Excessive pump flow causing high pressures
Correct answer: Hypovolemia or inadequate venous return to the circuit
Chatter (intermittent collapse) of the venous drainage line reflects inadequate preload or hypovolemia limiting the circuit's ability to maintain continuous blood flow.
Question 100: Which pharmacokinetic property of bivalirudin makes it advantageous over argatroban in patients with hepatic failure on ECMO?
- Bivalirudin is protein-bound, reducing free drug accumulation
- Bivalirudin is primarily metabolized by enzymatic cleavage in plasma, independent of liver function (Correct answer)
- Bivalirudin is renally cleared and not hepatically metabolized
- Bivalirudin has a longer half-life, allowing less frequent dosing
Correct answer: Bivalirudin is primarily metabolized by enzymatic cleavage in plasma, independent of liver function
Bivalirudin is metabolized primarily by thrombin-mediated proteolysis and non-specific plasma proteases, not by hepatic enzymes, making it predictable in liver failure.
Question 101: Which anticoagulant is most commonly used to maintain circuit patency during ECMO?
- Enoxaparin
- Bivalirudin
- Warfarin (Coumadin)
- Unfractionated heparin (UFH) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
Unfractionated heparin is the most widely used anticoagulant in ECMO due to its titrability, reversibility with protamine, and availability of established monitoring assays.
Question 102: When Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT) is integrated into the ECMO circuit, where are the access and return lines typically placed to minimize risks of air embolism and circuit pressure disturbances?
- Access post-oxygenator, return post-oxygenator
- Access post-pump, return pre-pump
- Access pre-pump, return post-oxygenator
- Access post-pump (pre-oxygenator), return pre-pump (in the venous drainage line) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Access post-pump (pre-oxygenator), return pre-pump (in the venous drainage line)
The safest and most common configuration is to access blood from a positive-pressure area of the circuit (post-pump, but before the oxygenator) and return it to a negative-pressure area (pre-pump, on the venous drainage line). Drawing from a positive pressure area prevents air from being entrained into the circuit if a connection becomes loose. Returning to the low-pressure venous line minimizes the resistance the CRRT machine must pump against, preventing alarms and circuit disruption.
Question 103: A VV ECMO patient's sweep gas accidentally becomes disconnected for 3 minutes. What is the expected physiologic consequence?
- Hypoxemia only with compensatory respiratory alkalosis
- Hypercapnia only with maintained oxygenation
- Rapid hypoxemia and hypercapnia (Correct answer)
- No significant change if native lung function is partial
Correct answer: Rapid hypoxemia and hypercapnia
Loss of sweep gas eliminates both O2 transfer and CO2 removal across the membrane, causing rapid hypoxemia and hypercapnia.
Question 104: What is the recommended protein target for ECMO patients to support recovery and minimize muscle catabolism?
- 1.5β2.0 g/kg/day (Correct answer)
- 1.0β1.2 g/kg/day
- 2.5β3.0 g/kg/day
- 0.5β0.8 g/kg/day
Correct answer: 1.5β2.0 g/kg/day
ECMO patients are in a hypercatabolic state, and current guidelines recommend 1.5β2.0 g/kg/day of protein to support nitrogen balance and minimize muscle wasting.
Question 105: During ECMO decannulation, protamine is administered to reverse heparin. What is the most feared complication of protamine administration?
- Prolonged thrombocytopenia lasting weeks
- Severe pulmonary hypertension and cardiovascular collapse (Correct answer)
- Acute kidney injury from protein precipitation
- Rebound anticoagulation 4β6 hours later
Correct answer: Severe pulmonary hypertension and cardiovascular collapse
Protamine can trigger complement activation, thromboxane release, and pulmonary vasoconstriction, causing acute severe pulmonary hypertension and cardiovascular collapse, especially in right-heart-failure patients.
Question 106: What is the effect of hypothermia on oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation during ECMO?
- Shifts curve leftward, increasing hemoglobin O2 affinity (Correct answer)
- Has no effect on the dissociation curve
- Eliminates the Bohr effect completely
- Shifts curve rightward, improving O2 unloading
Correct answer: Shifts curve leftward, increasing hemoglobin O2 affinity
Hypothermia shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, increasing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and impairing tissue O2 delivery.
Question 107: The 'recirculation' phenomenon in VV-ECMO occurs when:
- The heat exchanger overheats the blood
- Oxygenated blood returning to the patient is re-entrained into the drainage cannula (Correct answer)
- CO2 accumulates in the oxygenator fiber bundle
- The pump spins in reverse direction
Correct answer: Oxygenated blood returning to the patient is re-entrained into the drainage cannula
Recirculation in VV-ECMO occurs when returned oxygenated blood is immediately suctioned back into the drainage cannula instead of circulating through the patient.
Question 108: What is the clinical significance of a sudden decrease in the pressure gradient across the ECMO oxygenator?
- Reflects improved pump efficiency
- Indicates a circuit air embolism
- May signal oxygenator thrombosis or clot formation within the device (Correct answer)
- Indicates improved patient lung function
Correct answer: May signal oxygenator thrombosis or clot formation within the device
An increasing or suddenly changing transmembrane pressure gradient across the oxygenator may indicate thrombus formation, prompting urgent evaluation and possible oxygenator exchange.
Question 109: A patient on VA-ECMO for cardiogenic shock undergoes a 30-minute clamp trial. During the trial, the arterial pressure waveform becomes pulsatile with a pulse pressure of 40 mmHg. This finding indicates:
- Ventricular fibrillation has occurred
- Adequate left ventricular recovery to consider decannulation (Correct answer)
- The arterial line is dampened and needs troubleshooting
- Severe aortic regurgitation has developed
Correct answer: Adequate left ventricular recovery to consider decannulation
A robust pulsatile waveform during VA-ECMO clamping reflects meaningful left ventricular stroke volume, suggesting cardiac recovery.
Question 110: Following decannulation from femoral VA-ECMO, a patient develops ipsilateral leg swelling and pain. Duplex ultrasound reveals deep vein thrombosis at the cannulation site. Appropriate management includes:
- Therapeutic anticoagulation and monitoring for pulmonary embolism (Correct answer)
- Observation alone; cannulation-site DVT never embolizes
- Surgical thrombectomy immediately
- Inferior vena cava filter placement as the first-line intervention
Correct answer: Therapeutic anticoagulation and monitoring for pulmonary embolism
Cannulation-site DVT is managed with therapeutic anticoagulation and surveillance for PE, similar to other lower-extremity DVT.
Question 111: Which of the following best explains why pulsatility is important to maintain during VA-ECMO support?
- Pulsatile flow preserves microvascular function and organ perfusion pressure waveforms (Correct answer)
- Pulsatility prevents oxygenator membrane fouling
- Pulsatility improves oxygenator gas transfer efficiency
- Non-pulsatile flow increases ECMO circuit thrombosis risk
Correct answer: Pulsatile flow preserves microvascular function and organ perfusion pressure waveforms
Pulsatile flow maintains physiologic microvascular tone and endothelial function; prolonged non-pulsatile VA-ECMO flow is associated with end-organ dysfunction.
Question 112: What is the primary mechanism by which bivalirudin anticoagulates ECMO patients?
- Activating antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin
- Directly and reversibly inhibiting free and clot-bound thrombin (Correct answer)
- Inhibiting vitamin K-dependent factor synthesis
- Blocking platelet ADP receptors
Correct answer: Directly and reversibly inhibiting free and clot-bound thrombin
Bivalirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor that binds both free and fibrin-bound thrombin directly without requiring antithrombin as a cofactor.
Question 113: A visible clot is noted in the ECMO tubing near the pump head. The appropriate immediate action is to:
- Increase heparin infusion rate and continue monitoring
- Clamp the circuit and prepare for emergency circuit change (Correct answer)
- Administer tPA through the circuit
- Increase pump speed to dislodge the clot
Correct answer: Clamp the circuit and prepare for emergency circuit change
A visible thrombus in the circuit poses an immediate risk of systemic embolism or pump failure, requiring circuit change rather than acceleration.
Question 114: Which factor most significantly increases thrombin generation on ECMO beyond the circuit surface itself?
- Therapeutic hypothermia
- Supranormal oxygen delivery
- Hyperglycemia
- Systemic inflammatory response activating the extrinsic coagulation pathway (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Systemic inflammatory response activating the extrinsic coagulation pathway
ECMO triggers a systemic inflammatory response that activates tissue factor expression on monocytes and endothelium, driving extrinsic pathway thrombin generation beyond circuit contact activation alone.
Question 115: Which mechanism best explains why patients with severe right heart failure on VA-ECMO may paradoxically develop pulmonary edema?
- ECMO increases pulmonary venous pressure by augmenting left atrial return
- ECMO anticoagulation increases pulmonary capillary permeability
- High ECMO flows cause pulmonary hypertension via increased pulmonary venous pressure
- Improved RV unloading by ECMO increases pulmonary blood flow into the failing LV, which cannot accommodate the increased preload (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Improved RV unloading by ECMO increases pulmonary blood flow into the failing LV, which cannot accommodate the increased preload
When VA-ECMO decompresses the RV and restores pulmonary blood flow, a severely impaired LV that cannot empty adequately develops rising LVEDP transmitted back to the pulmonary capillaries, causing hydrostatic edema.
Question 116: Which hemodynamic finding is most consistent with the 'North-South syndrome' (Harlequin syndrome) in peripheral VA ECMO?
- Hypoxic lower body with well-oxygenated upper body
- Hypoxic upper body with well-oxygenated lower body (Correct answer)
- Differential cyanosis of the left arm only
- Global hypoxia despite adequate ECMO flow
Correct answer: Hypoxic upper body with well-oxygenated lower body
In Harlequin syndrome, retrograde ECMO flow oxygenates the lower body while the patient's own failing heart delivers desaturated blood to the upper body and coronary arteries.
Question 117: Which electrolyte disturbance is particularly problematic when using continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) concurrently with ECMO?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia (Correct answer)
- Hypercalcemia
- Hypernatremia
Correct answer: Hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia
CRRT removes magnesium and phosphate from the blood continuously; without supplementation, patients on combined ECMO-CRRT are at high risk for hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia.
Question 118: A patient on ECMO receiving unfractionated heparin has an aPTT of 220 seconds. The appropriate intervention is:
- Administer protamine sulfate to fully reverse anticoagulation
- Continue current heparin dose and recheck in 4 hours
- Switch to bivalirudin immediately
- Hold heparin infusion and recheck aPTT in 2 hours (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hold heparin infusion and recheck aPTT in 2 hours
A supratherapeutic aPTT of 220 seconds greatly increases bleeding risk; holding the heparin infusion temporarily allows levels to fall while avoiding full reversal that risks circuit thrombosis.
Question 119: During VV ECMO, the sweep gas FiO2 is increased from 0.6 to 1.0 but CO2 remains elevated. What adjustment should be made?
- Increase sweep gas flow rate (Correct answer)
- Increase ECMO blood flow
- Switch to VA ECMO
- Decrease ECMO blood flow
Correct answer: Increase sweep gas flow rate
CO2 removal on ECMO is primarily determined by sweep gas flow rate (not FiO2), so increasing sweep gas flow enhances CO2 elimination.
Question 120: Which monitoring parameter is most useful for assessing adequacy of nutrition support and metabolic response in ECMO patients?
- Body weight measured every 48 hours
- Indirect calorimetry measurement (Correct answer)
- Daily urine urea nitrogen excretion only
- Serum albumin levels weekly
Correct answer: Indirect calorimetry measurement
Indirect calorimetry provides the most accurate measure of resting energy expenditure in ECMO patients, guiding precise caloric prescription and avoiding over- or underfeeding.
ELSO Adult ECMO Certification Exam
The ELSO Adult ECMO Certification Exam (E-AEC) validates the clinical knowledge and competency of ECMO specialists across circuit management, cannulation, anticoagulation, patient monitoring, and troubleshooting for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong β answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds