Oracle Database Foundations Associate (1Z0-006) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which Oracle memory structure caches recently accessed data blocks?
- Redo Log Buffer
- Database Buffer Cache (Correct answer)
- Shared Pool
- Large Pool
Correct answer: Database Buffer Cache
The Database Buffer Cache is a critical component of the System Global Area (SGA) in Oracle, used to store copies of data blocks read from data files. Its purpose is to reduce physical I/O by caching frequently accessed data, allowing subsequent requests for the same data to be served directly from memory, which is much faster.
Question 2: What is the primary purpose of database normalization?
- To simplify backup and recovery operations
- To maximize query performance by denormalizing data
- To reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity (Correct answer)
- To increase the number of tables for better indexing
Correct answer: To reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity
Normalization organizes data to minimize redundancy and dependency, preventing update, insert, and delete anomalies.
Question 3: What does granting a privilege WITH GRANT OPTION allow the recipient to do?
- Grant the same object privilege to other users (Correct answer)
- Use the privilege indefinitely without expiration
- Bypass all audit policies related to that privilege
- Perform the action without generating redo logs
Correct answer: Grant the same object privilege to other users
WITH GRANT OPTION lets the grantee pass the same object privilege on to additional users, creating a chain of privilege delegation.
Question 4: In Oracle, which structure maps logical database blocks to physical file locations?
- Control file
- Parameter file
- Redo log
- Extent map in segment header (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Extent map in segment header
In Oracle, a segment (e.g., a table or index) is composed of extents, which are contiguous blocks of data. The segment header contains an extent map that tracks the physical file and block locations of all the extents belonging to that segment. This map is crucial for the database to efficiently locate and access the data stored within a segment, linking logical data structures to their physical storage.
Question 5: In Oracle's memory architecture, which area is shared by all sessions connected to the same instance?
- UGA (User Global Area) in dedicated mode
- PGA (Program Global Area)
- SGA (System Global Area) (Correct answer)
- Sort work area
Correct answer: SGA (System Global Area)
The SGA is a shared memory region allocated when the instance starts and is accessible by all background and server processes of that instance.
Question 6: Which notation style uses 'crow's foot' symbols to indicate cardinality on an ER diagram?
- Chen notation
- Crow's Foot (IE) notation (Correct answer)
- Bachman notation
- UML class diagram notation
Correct answer: Crow's Foot (IE) notation
Crow's Foot (also called Information Engineering notation) uses a crow's foot symbol to denote the 'many' side of a relationship.
Question 7: Which SQL command is used to permanently save changes made during a transaction?
- PERSIST
- SAVE
- COMMIT (Correct answer)
- ROLLBACK
Correct answer: COMMIT
COMMIT permanently saves all changes made during the current transaction to the database.
Question 8: Which normal form eliminates partial dependencies on a composite primary key?
- First Normal Form (1NF)
- Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)
- Third Normal Form (3NF)
- Second Normal Form (2NF) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Second Normal Form (2NF)
2NF removes partial dependencies, ensuring every non-key attribute depends on the whole composite primary key, not just part of it.
Question 9: Which term describes the process of organizing database tables to reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity?
- Replication
- Partitioning
- Normalization (Correct answer)
- Indexing
Correct answer: Normalization
Normalization is the process of structuring a relational database according to normal forms (1NF, 2NF, 3NF, etc.) to eliminate redundancy and dependency anomalies.
Question 10: What is the purpose of a junction (bridge) table in relational database design?
- To hold temporary data during transaction processing
- To store indexes for faster query performance
- To resolve a many-to-many relationship into two one-to-many relationships (Correct answer)
- To enforce referential integrity constraints automatically
Correct answer: To resolve a many-to-many relationship into two one-to-many relationships
A junction table sits between two entities in a many-to-many relationship, holding foreign keys to both and converting the relationship into two one-to-many links.
Question 11: What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE in Oracle?
- TRUNCATE allows a WHERE clause; DELETE does not
- DELETE keeps the table; TRUNCATE drops the table entirely
- TRUNCATE cannot be rolled back; DELETE can be rolled back before COMMIT (Correct answer)
- DELETE is DDL; TRUNCATE is DML
Correct answer: TRUNCATE cannot be rolled back; DELETE can be rolled back before COMMIT
TRUNCATE is a DDL operation that cannot be rolled back; DELETE is DML and can be undone with ROLLBACK before committing.
Question 12: Which SQL statement is used to permanently save changes made during a transaction?
- COMMIT (Correct answer)
- SAVE
- SAVEPOINT
- ROLLBACK
Correct answer: COMMIT
COMMIT permanently writes all pending DML changes to the database, making them visible to other sessions.
Question 13: Which concept refers to hiding the internal complexity of a database from end users and applications?
- Replication
- Partitioning
- Normalization
- Abstraction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Abstraction
Data abstraction allows users and applications to interact with data at a high level without needing to know how it is physically stored or organized internally.
Question 14: A user connects to an Oracle database and executes a large, complex SQL query that requires significant sorting and hashing operations. Where is the memory for these user-specific operations primarily allocated?
- Database Buffer Cache
- Program Global Area (PGA) (Correct answer)
- Shared Pool
- Redo Log Buffer
Correct answer: Program Global Area (PGA)
The Program Global Area (PGA) is a private memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is allocated when a server process starts and is used for session-specific tasks like sorting, hashing, and storing bind variable values. The other options are components of the System Global Area (SGA), which is shared among all user processes.
Question 15: Which view would a DBA query to see all current active sessions in an Oracle database?
- DBA_SESSIONS
- V$SESSION (Correct answer)
- ALL_SESSIONS
- USER_SESSIONS
Correct answer: V$SESSION
V$SESSION is a dynamic performance view that shows information about all current sessions connected to the Oracle database.
Question 16: In Oracle Database architecture, what is a tablespace?
- A logical storage unit composed of one or more data files (Correct answer)
- A background process that manages storage allocation
- A memory area in the SGA used for sorting
- A single physical file stored on the operating system
Correct answer: A logical storage unit composed of one or more data files
A tablespace is a logical storage container that groups related database objects; it maps to one or more physical data files on disk.
Question 17: Which initialization parameter controls the maximum number of user sessions that can connect to an Oracle instance simultaneously?
- DB_CONNECTIONS
- MAX_USERS
- MAX_CONNECTIONS
- SESSIONS (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SESSIONS
The SESSIONS initialization parameter sets the maximum number of concurrent sessions allowed in an Oracle instance.
Question 18: In 1Z0-006 practice, what is the best approach to quality improvement in data modeling?
- Wait for problems to occur before acting
- Make changes without measuring results
- Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes (Correct answer)
- Copy what other organizations do without analysis
Correct answer: Use data-driven methods with measurable outcomes
Data-driven quality improvement with measurable outcomes ensures that changes actually produce the intended improvements and can be verified.
Question 19: Which DELETE syntax correctly removes all rows from a table named EMPLOYEES?
- REMOVE FROM EMPLOYEES;
- DROP EMPLOYEES;
- DELETE FROM EMPLOYEES; (Correct answer)
- DELETE EMPLOYEES;
Correct answer: DELETE FROM EMPLOYEES;
DELETE FROM table_name without a WHERE clause removes all rows while keeping the table structure intact.
Question 20: A user wants to add a new employee record to the 'employees' table, which has columns for 'employee_id', 'last_name', and 'hire_date'. Which of the following SQL statements is the correct syntax for this operation?
- UPDATE employees SET employee_id=101, last_name='Smith', hire_date='17-OCT-23';
- CREATE NEW ROW IN employees VALUES (101, 'Smith', '17-OCT-23');
- ADD INTO employees VALUES (101, 'Smith', '17-OCT-23');
- INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, last_name, hire_date) VALUES (101, 'Smith', '17-OCT-23'); (Correct answer)
Correct answer: INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, last_name, hire_date) VALUES (101, 'Smith', '17-OCT-23');
The correct syntax for adding a new row of data to a table is the `INSERT INTO` statement. It specifies the table, optionally the columns, and then the `VALUES` clause provides the data for the new row.
Question 21: What is the role of the Oracle Listener process?
- Manages memory allocation for sessions
- Writes redo log entries to disk
- Performs automatic backup operations
- Accepts incoming client connection requests to the database (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Accepts incoming client connection requests to the database
The Oracle Listener is a network process that listens on a port and routes incoming client connection requests to the appropriate database instance.
Question 22: Which type of JOIN returns all rows from the left table and matching rows from the right table, with NULLs for non-matching right rows?
- LEFT OUTER JOIN (Correct answer)
- CROSS JOIN
- RIGHT OUTER JOIN
- INNER JOIN
Correct answer: LEFT OUTER JOIN
A LEFT OUTER JOIN returns all rows from the left table plus matching rows from the right table; unmatched right-table columns appear as NULL.
Question 23: What happens to a user's objects when the user account is DROPPED in Oracle?
- Objects are archived to a backup tablespace
- All objects owned by the user are also dropped (Correct answer)
- Objects are retained but become inaccessible
- Objects are moved to the SYSTEM schema
Correct answer: All objects owned by the user are also dropped
Dropping a user with the CASCADE option removes the user and all their schema objects from the database.
Question 24: An application schema owner should not log in directly. Which account status best enforces this policy?
- OPEN with limited privileges
- EXPIRED
- LOCKED
- EXPIRED & LOCKED (Correct answer)
Correct answer: EXPIRED & LOCKED
Setting an account to EXPIRED & LOCKED prevents direct logins while still allowing the schema to exist and be accessed by other authorized application accounts.
Question 25: What is the default tablespace for a new Oracle user if none is specified at creation?
- USERS
- SYSAUX
- SYSTEM (Correct answer)
- TEMP
Correct answer: SYSTEM
If no default tablespace is specified when creating a user, Oracle assigns the SYSTEM tablespace as the default, which is generally undesirable.
Question 26: Which of the following SQL statements modifies existing data in a table?
- INSERT
- MERGE
- UPDATE (Correct answer)
- ALTER
Correct answer: UPDATE
UPDATE changes the values of existing rows in a table based on the specified SET and optional WHERE conditions.
Question 27: Which SQL statement is used to add a new row to a table?
- INSERT (Correct answer)
- MERGE
- ALTER
- UPDATE
Correct answer: INSERT
The `INSERT` statement is the standard SQL command used to add one or more new rows (records) into a table. It specifies the table name and the values to be inserted into its columns. This is distinct from `UPDATE`, which modifies existing rows, or `ALTER`, which modifies the table structure itself.
Question 28: An entity that cannot be uniquely identified by its own attributes alone and depends on another entity is called a:
- Associative entity
- Strong entity
- Derived entity
- Weak entity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Weak entity
A weak entity lacks sufficient attributes to form its own primary key and relies on its owner (strong) entity for full identification.
Question 29: In Oracle SQL Developer Data Modeler, what is the difference between a 'logical' and a 'relational' model?
- A relational model is identical to a conceptual model
- A logical model includes physical storage; a relational model is DBMS-agnostic
- A logical model uses entity/attribute terminology; a relational model maps these to tables/columns with keys (Correct answer)
- A logical model can only represent one-to-one relationships
Correct answer: A logical model uses entity/attribute terminology; a relational model maps these to tables/columns with keys
The logical model uses abstract entity and attribute concepts, while the relational model transforms these into tables, columns, primary keys, and foreign keys for implementation.
Question 30: In a dedicated server configuration, how many server processes handle a single user session?
- Multiple DBWR processes per session
- One dedicated server process per session (Correct answer)
- One shared server process handles all sessions
- One background process per session
Correct answer: One dedicated server process per session
In dedicated server mode, Oracle spawns one dedicated server process exclusively for each user session for its entire duration.
Question 31: Which clause in a SELECT statement is used to filter rows AFTER grouping has been applied?
- ORDER BY
- WHERE
- GROUP BY
- HAVING (Correct answer)
Correct answer: HAVING
HAVING filters groups after GROUP BY aggregation, while WHERE filters individual rows before grouping.
Question 32: Which Oracle tool would a DBA use to interactively diagnose performance issues by analyzing wait events, top SQL, and session activity in real time?
- Enterprise Manager Performance Hub (Correct answer)
- Oracle SQL Developer's DBA panel
- RMAN
- Data Pump
Correct answer: Enterprise Manager Performance Hub
The Enterprise Manager Performance Hub (available in EM Express and Cloud Control) provides real-time and historical performance analysis including ASH, ADDM, and top SQL.
Question 33: Which Oracle background process writes dirty buffers from the database buffer cache to data files?
- SMON
- DBWR (Correct answer)
- LGWR
- PMON
Correct answer: DBWR
DBWR (Database Writer) is responsible for writing modified (dirty) data blocks from the buffer cache to the data files on disk.
Question 34: Which of the following best describes 'total specialization'?
- Every superclass instance must belong to at least one subclass (Correct answer)
- Every subclass must have a discriminating attribute
- The superclass cannot have its own instances
- Subclasses are mutually exclusive
Correct answer: Every superclass instance must belong to at least one subclass
Total specialization (double line in EER) means every entity in the superclass must also be a member of at least one subclass.
Question 35: What does SQL*Plus primarily allow a DBA or developer to do?
- Execute SQL and PL/SQL statements interactively from a command line (Correct answer)
- Monitor real-time AWR performance reports
- Visually browse and edit table data in a spreadsheet view
- Graphically design database schemas
Correct answer: Execute SQL and PL/SQL statements interactively from a command line
SQL*Plus is Oracle's command-line interface for running SQL queries, PL/SQL blocks, and administrative commands against an Oracle database.
Question 36: Which SQL clause is used to join data from a column with the rows of another table inline?
- SUBQUERY in FROM (inline view) (Correct answer)
- GROUP BY
- CONNECT BY
- HAVING
Correct answer: SUBQUERY in FROM (inline view)
A subquery in the FROM clause (inline view) acts as a derived table that can be queried like a regular table.
Question 37: A table stores OrderID, ProductID, ProductName, and Quantity. OrderID+ProductID form the primary key. ProductName depends only on ProductID. Which normal form is violated?
- 3NF, because of a transitive dependency
- 1NF, because of repeating groups
- BCNF, because a non-key attribute determines a key attribute
- 2NF, because ProductName is partially dependent on the composite key (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2NF, because ProductName is partially dependent on the composite key
ProductName depends only on ProductID (part of the composite key), creating a partial dependency that violates 2NF.
Question 38: When modeling a database, you identify a many-to-many relationship between 'STUDENT' and 'COURSE'. To resolve this relationship in the logical model, what should be created?
- A supertype entity
- An intersection entity (associative entity) (Correct answer)
- A foreign key in the 'STUDENT' table
- A recursive relationship
Correct answer: An intersection entity (associative entity)
Many-to-many relationships are resolved by creating an intersection entity, also known as an associative entity or junction table. This new entity will have a many-to-one relationship with each of the original entities, typically containing foreign keys that reference the primary keys of the 'STUDENT' and 'COURSE' tables.
Question 39: Which Oracle constraint type can reference columns in the same row to enforce a business rule, such as END_DATE >= START_DATE?
- NOT NULL
- CHECK (Correct answer)
- PRIMARY KEY
- FOREIGN KEY
Correct answer: CHECK
A CHECK constraint can compare columns within the same row and enforce business rules like END_DATE >= START_DATE.
Question 40: Which foundational principle is MOST important for success in the Oracle Database Foundations Associate profession?
- Specializing in only one narrow area of practice
- Maintaining the minimum requirements for certification
- Maximizing financial returns on every engagement
- Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes
Success in any professional field requires a commitment to continuous learning to stay current, ethical practice to maintain trust and integrity, and a focus on quality outcomes that serve stakeholders and the public interest.
Question 41: In data modeling, what does 'domain' refer to?
- The set of all valid values an attribute can hold (Correct answer)
- A group of related tables in a schema
- The network address of the database server
- The physical storage location of table data
Correct answer: The set of all valid values an attribute can hold
A domain defines the permissible set of values for an attribute, including data type, length, format, and constraints.
Question 42: Which privilege is required to query data from another user's table in Oracle without any additional grants?
- DBA role only
- PUBLIC SELECT
- CREATE TABLE
- SELECT ANY TABLE system privilege (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SELECT ANY TABLE system privilege
The SELECT ANY TABLE system privilege allows a user to query any table in the database without needing an explicit object grant from the owner.
Question 43: Which Oracle startup mode allows the DBA to perform maintenance but prevents regular users from connecting?
- NOMOUNT
- MOUNT
- OPEN RESTRICTED (Correct answer)
- OPEN READ ONLY
Correct answer: OPEN RESTRICTED
OPEN RESTRICTED mode opens the database but limits access to users with the RESTRICTED SESSION privilege, allowing DBA maintenance tasks.
Question 44: In EER (Enhanced Entity-Relationship) modeling, 'specialization' is best defined as:
- Merging attributes from two entities into one
- Creating a relationship between two different database schemas
- Combining multiple entity types into a single superclass
- Defining subclasses of an entity type based on distinguishing characteristics (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Defining subclasses of an entity type based on distinguishing characteristics
Specialization is a top-down process of defining subclasses from a superclass based on specific distinguishing features.
Question 45: A database alert log records:
- All DML statements
- Only user queries
- Critical messages and errors from background processes (Correct answer)
- Operating system patches
Correct answer: Critical messages and errors from background processes
The database alert log is a chronological record of critical messages, errors, and significant events generated by Oracle background processes. It provides vital information for diagnosing database issues, tracking startup/shutdown events, and monitoring internal operations, making it an essential diagnostic tool for DBAs.
Question 46: Which term describes a candidate key that was NOT chosen as the primary key?
- Surrogate key
- Composite key
- Foreign key
- Alternate key (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Alternate key
An alternate key is any candidate key that was not selected as the primary key but still uniquely identifies each row.
Question 47: What is the difference between a dedicated server and a shared server connection in Oracle?
- Shared server stores session state in the SGA; dedicated server stores it in a temp file
- In dedicated server, each session has its own server process; in shared server, multiple sessions share server processes (Correct answer)
- Dedicated server only supports read-only connections; shared server allows writes
- Dedicated server uses TCP; shared server uses named pipes
Correct answer: In dedicated server, each session has its own server process; in shared server, multiple sessions share server processes
With dedicated server, Oracle spawns one server process per user session; with shared server (MTS), a pool of server processes handles requests from many sessions.
Question 48: Which relational operation returns only rows that appear in both of two query result sets?
- MINUS
- JOIN
- INTERSECT (Correct answer)
- UNION
Correct answer: INTERSECT
INTERSECT returns only the rows that are common to both result sets, eliminating rows that appear in only one.
Question 49: Which of the following correctly inserts a row with specific column values?
- ADD INTO EMPLOYEES (id, name) VALUES (101, 'Ana');
- INSERT INTO EMPLOYEES SET id=101, name='Ana';
- INSERT INTO EMPLOYEES VALUES (101, 'Ana'); (Correct answer)
- INSERT EMPLOYEES VALUES (101, 'Ana');
Correct answer: INSERT INTO EMPLOYEES VALUES (101, 'Ana');
The correct Oracle syntax is INSERT INTO table_name [(columns)] VALUES (values).
Question 50: A PRODUCT table has columns: ProductID, CategoryID, CategoryName, Price. CategoryName depends on CategoryID, not directly on ProductID. Which normal form violation does this represent?
- 1NF violation due to non-atomic values
- 2NF violation due to a partial dependency
- BCNF violation due to a non-superkey determinant
- 3NF violation due to a transitive dependency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 3NF violation due to a transitive dependency
CategoryName transitively depends on ProductID through CategoryID (ProductID → CategoryID → CategoryName), which violates 3NF.
Question 51: A database administrator is performing a recovery operation and needs to locate all the data files and redo log files. Which physical database structure contains this critical metadata, including the database name and the timestamp of its creation?
- Data Files
- Password File
- Control Files (Correct answer)
- Parameter File (PFILE/SPFILE)
Correct answer: Control Files
Control files are small binary files that record the physical structure of the database. They contain the database name, the names and locations of data files and redo log files, and the database creation timestamp. They are essential for mounting and opening the database.
Question 52: What is Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) in Oracle used for?
- Encrypting data stored in data files and backups without application changes (Correct answer)
- Hashing user passwords stored in the database
- Encrypting network traffic between the client and server
- Masking sensitive data displayed in query results
Correct answer: Encrypting data stored in data files and backups without application changes
TDE encrypts data at rest in data files and tablespaces, protecting against physical theft of storage media without requiring any application changes.
Question 53: A 'disjoint' specialization constraint in EER means:
- No entity instance can belong to any subclass
- An entity instance can belong to more than one subclass simultaneously
- All entity instances must belong to at least one subclass
- An entity instance can belong to at most one subclass at a time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An entity instance can belong to at most one subclass at a time
A disjoint constraint (marked 'd' in EER diagrams) means the subclasses are mutually exclusive — an entity can be in only one subclass.
Question 54: When an ER diagram shows a relationship with an attribute (e.g., 'Date' on a WORKS_FOR relationship), what does this indicate?
- The attribute describes a property of the relationship itself, not either entity alone (Correct answer)
- The attribute is a primary key of a new entity
- The attribute is derived and should not be stored
- The attribute belongs to one of the participating entities
Correct answer: The attribute describes a property of the relationship itself, not either entity alone
Relationship attributes capture information that only makes sense in the context of the association between two entities, not either entity individually.
Question 55: Which command would a DBA use to change a user's password in Oracle?
- UPDATE DBA_USERS SET PASSWORD = 'new_password'
- ALTER USER username IDENTIFIED BY new_password (Correct answer)
- MODIFY USER username PASSWORD new_password
- RESET PASSWORD FOR username
Correct answer: ALTER USER username IDENTIFIED BY new_password
The ALTER USER ... IDENTIFIED BY statement is the correct SQL syntax to change a user's password in Oracle.
Question 56: To revoke a role from a user, which statement is used?
- REVOKE (Correct answer)
- DENY
- DROP
- REMOVE
Correct answer: REVOKE
The REVOKE statement is used in SQL to remove previously granted privileges or roles from a user or another role. It is the counterpart to the GRANT statement, allowing database administrators to manage and restrict access permissions. For example, `REVOKE CONNECT FROM username;`.
Question 57: Which profile parameter limits the number of consecutive failed login attempts before an account is automatically locked?
- PASSWORD_LOCK_TIME
- PASSWORD_REUSE_TIME
- FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS (Correct answer)
- LOGIN_RETRIES
Correct answer: FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS
FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS in a profile defines how many consecutive incorrect passwords are allowed before Oracle locks the account.
Question 58: What does the NVL(commission_pct, 0) function do when commission_pct is NULL?
- Returns the string 'NULL'
- Raises an exception
- Returns 0 (Correct answer)
- Leaves the value unchanged
Correct answer: Returns 0
NVL replaces a NULL value with the specified substitute, so NVL(commission_pct, 0) returns 0 when commission_pct is NULL.
Question 59: Which metric is most useful for evaluating program effectiveness in 1Z0-006?
- Amount of money spent
- Number of staff involved
- Number of meetings held
- Outcome-based performance indicators (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Outcome-based performance indicators
Outcome-based performance indicators directly measure whether the program is achieving its intended results and goals.
Question 60: Following an unexpected server shutdown, an Oracle database instance is restarted. The database automatically begins a process of rolling forward committed changes from the redo logs and rolling back uncommitted transactions. Which background process is primarily responsible for performing this crash recovery?
- Archive (ARCn)
- Process Monitor (PMON)
- Database Writer (DBWn)
- System Monitor (SMON) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: System Monitor (SMON)
The System Monitor (SMON) process is responsible for instance recovery, also known as crash recovery. Upon startup after a failure, SMON applies redo log entries to the data files for committed transactions and rolls back uncommitted transactions. PMON cleans up failed user processes, and ARCn handles the archiving of redo logs.
Oracle Database Foundations Associate (1Z0-006)
This certification validates foundational knowledge of Oracle Database concepts, including SQL, database architecture, and basic administration.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds